UPSC CBI DSP LDCE Archives

11. The Governor of a State may tender his/her resignation to

The Governor of a State may tender his/her resignation to

the President of India

the Union Home Minister

the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly

the Advocate General of the State

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CBI DSP LDCE – 2023

Download PDF Attempt Online

Article 156(2) of the Constitution of India explicitly states that “The Governor may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office.” The Governor is appointed by the President and holds office during the pleasure of the President.

The Governor is the nominal head of the state executive, acting as a link between the Centre and the State. The President appoints the Governor, and the Governor holds office at the pleasure of the President.

The term of the Governor’s office is generally five years, but this is subject to the doctrine of pleasure of the President. The Governor can be transferred from one state to another by the President.

Join Our Telegram Channel

12. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Join Our Telegram Channel

As per the Constitution of India, the Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Parliament.

Residual Powers are vested in the Parliament.

The President of India is the Constitutional Head of the Executive of the Union.

As per the Constitution of India, there is provision for independence of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CBI DSP LDCE – 2023

Download PDF Attempt Online

Option A states that the Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Parliament. As per Article 75(3) of the Constitution of India, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha). While the Lok Sabha is a part of the Parliament, the specific constitutional provision names the Lok Sabha, not the Parliament as a whole. Therefore, stating responsibility to the entire Parliament is not constitutionally precise and is considered incorrect in a strict sense compared to the other options which are correctly stated.

Collective responsibility means that the entire Council of Ministers stands or falls together. If a no-confidence motion is passed against the Council of Ministers in the Lok Sabha, the entire council has to resign.

Option B is correct (Article 248 and Entry 97 of Union List). Option C is correct (Article 53 read with Article 74). Option D is correct (Articles 148-151 ensure the independence of the CAG by providing security of tenure, making his removal difficult, charging his salary on the Consolidated Fund of India, etc.).

13. Which of the following statements about the Mountbatten Plan is/are co

Which of the following statements about the Mountbatten Plan is/are correct?

Join Our Telegram Channel

1. The elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in 1946 under the Mountbatten Plan.
2. The Muslim League’s demand for a separate Constituent Assembly was conceded in the Mountbatten Plan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CBI DSP LDCE – 2023

Download PDF Attempt Online

Statement 1 is incorrect because the elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in 1946, based on the framework provided by the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946. The Mountbatten Plan was announced on June 3, 1947. Statement 2 is correct because the Mountbatten Plan, also known as the 3rd June Plan, accepted the principle of Partition and conceded the Muslim League’s demand for a separate Dominion of Pakistan and consequently, a separate Constituent Assembly for Pakistan.

The Mountbatten Plan (June 3, 1947) formalized the partition of British India and the creation of India and Pakistan as independent Dominions. It superseded aspects of the Cabinet Mission Plan which had envisaged a united India with a federal structure.

The Mountbatten Plan also provided for the division of Punjab and Bengal, a referendum in NWFP and Sylhet, and the lapse of paramountcy over princely states, giving them the choice to accede to either India or Pakistan or remain independent. The Indian Independence Act, 1947, gave legal effect to the Mountbatten Plan.

14. The National Commission for Review of the Working of the Constitution

The National Commission for Review of the Working of the Constitution (NCRWC) constituted in 2000 was chaired by

Justice M. N. Venkatachaliah

Justice Madhukar H. Kania

Justice J. S. Verma

Justice K. G. Balakrishnan

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CBI DSP LDCE – 2023

Download PDF Attempt Online

The National Commission for Review of the Working of the Constitution (NCRWC) was constituted by the Government of India in 2000. It was chaired by Justice M. N. Venkatachaliah, who was a former Chief Justice of India. The commission was tasked with suggesting possible amendments to the Constitution based on its working over the past 50 years, without altering its basic structure.

Justice M. N. Venkatachaliah chaired the National Commission for Review of the Working of the Constitution (NCRWC).

The Commission submitted its report in 2002, making recommendations on various aspects including electoral reforms, parliamentary and executive governance, independent institutions, fundamental rights, directive principles, and fundamental duties. The recommendations were debated but not all were implemented.

Join Our Telegram Channel

15. The President of India may resign from his/her office by writing under

The President of India may resign from his/her office by writing under his/her hand. To whom of the following is his/her resignation addressed to?

Join Our Telegram Channel

The Chief Justice of India

The senior most available Judge of the Supreme Court, in the absence of the Chief Justice of India

The Vice President of India

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CBI DSP LDCE – 2023

Download PDF Attempt Online

According to Article 56(1)(a) of the Constitution of India, the President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office. The Vice-President is required to immediately communicate this to the Speaker of the House of the People.

The President addresses his/her resignation letter to the Vice-President of India.

The Vice-President performs the duties of the President in case of a vacancy in the office of the President due to death, resignation, removal, or otherwise (Article 65). The Vice-President continues to act as President until a new President is elected and enters upon his office.

16. Which one of the following is not a correct description of the nature

Which one of the following is not a correct description of the nature of India’s federalism?

Join Our Telegram Channel

India's federalism is based on the doctrine of 'Separation of Powers'

The Supreme Court of India is independently entitled to interpret the Constitution

There are different tiers of the Government and each tier has specified jurisdiction

Sources of revenue for each level of the Government are specified

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CBI DSP LDCE – 2023

Download PDF Attempt Online

Statement A is not a correct description of India’s federalism. While the doctrine of ‘Separation of Powers’ is a principle concerning the division of powers among the three organs of government (legislature, executive, judiciary), federalism primarily concerns the division of powers between different levels of government (Union and States). Indian federalism is characterized by a division of powers between the Union and the States as defined in the Constitution (Seventh Schedule), an independent judiciary to interpret the Constitution (Statement B), multiple tiers of government with specified jurisdictions (Statement C), and division of revenue sources (Statement D).

India’s federalism is based on the division of powers between levels of government, not primarily on the separation of powers among the organs of government.

Indian federalism is often described as ‘quasi-federal’ or ‘federal in form but unitary in spirit’ due to the strong central government, especially during emergencies. Key features include a written constitution, division of powers, supremacy of the constitution, independent judiciary, and bicameral legislature. However, it also has unitary features like a single constitution, single citizenship, integrated judiciary, appointment of state governors by the Centre, and the Union’s power to legislate on State subjects under certain conditions.

17. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Not all Union T

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Join Our Telegram Channel

1. Not all Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies.
2. Union Territory of Puducherry has a Legislative Assembly.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CBI DSP LDCE – 2023

Download PDF Attempt Online

Statement 1 is correct. Not all Union Territories in India have Legislative Assemblies. For example, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Chandigarh, Lakshadweep, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu, and Ladakh do not have legislative assemblies. Statement 2 is correct. The Union Territory of Puducherry was granted a Legislative Assembly by the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963. Delhi also has a Legislative Assembly (under Article 239AA), and Jammu & Kashmir was provided with a Legislative Assembly under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019.

Only some Union Territories (Delhi, Puducherry, J&K) have Legislative Assemblies; others are directly administered by the Centre through an Administrator.

The administrative setup of Union Territories varies. Some are administered by an Administrator or Lieutenant Governor appointed by the President. Those with Legislative Assemblies (Delhi, Puducherry, J&K) have elected governments with limited powers compared to States, as the Administrator/Lieutenant Governor also holds significant authority, and certain subjects remain with the Central Government.

18. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The President o

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The President of India appoints the Attorney General of India and the Solicitor General of India.
2. Both the Attorney General of India and the Solicitor General of India are constitutional posts.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CBI DSP LDCE – 2023

Download PDF Attempt Online

Statement 1 is incorrect. The President appoints the Attorney General of India as per Article 76 of the Constitution. However, the Solicitor General of India is appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC), which is part of the executive, and not directly by the President as a constitutional appointee. Statement 2 is incorrect. The post of Attorney General of India is a constitutional post explicitly mentioned in Article 76. The post of Solicitor General of India is a statutory/convention post, acting as a subordinate to the Attorney General and assisting him/her. It is not a constitutional office.

Only the Attorney General is a constitutional post appointed by the President. The Solicitor General is not a constitutional post and is appointed by the ACC.

The Attorney General is the highest law officer in the country and is part of the Union Executive. The Solicitor General is the second highest law officer, assisting the Attorney General. The Solicitor General and Additional Solicitor Generals are appointed to assist the Attorney General in the discharge of his/her duties.

Join Our Telegram Channel

19. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts further exten

Which one of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts further extended the reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and the State Assemblies from seventy years to eighty years?

Join Our Telegram Channel

93rd Amendment Act

101st Amendment Act

102nd Amendment Act

104th Amendment Act

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CBI DSP LDCE – 2023

Download PDF Attempt Online

The reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the Lok Sabha and the State Assemblies was initially for a period of 10 years from the commencement of the Constitution. This reservation has been extended periodically by constitutional amendments. The 95th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2009, extended this reservation for another 10 years, i.e., up to January 25, 2020. The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019, further extended the reservation for SCs and STs in Lok Sabha and State Assemblies for a period of ten years, i.e., up to January 25, 2030.

The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019, extended the reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies from 70 years to 80 years.

The 104th Amendment also discontinued the reservation of nominated seats for the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. Other important recent amendments include the 101st (GST), 102nd (National Commission for Backward Classes constitutional status), and 103rd (EWS reservation). The 93rd Amendment Act is related to reservation for OBCs in educational institutions.

20. Which of the following statements about the Inter-State Council is/are

Which of the following statements about the Inter-State Council is/are correct?

1. It can inquire into disputes between States.
2. It cannot investigate subjects involving the Union.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Join Our Telegram Channel

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CBI DSP LDCE – 2023

Download PDF Attempt Online

Statement 1 is correct. Article 263 of the Constitution empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council to inquire into and advise upon disputes which may have arisen between States. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Inter-State Council is also tasked with investigating and discussing subjects in which some or all of the States, or the Union and one or more of the States, have a common interest. This explicitly includes subjects involving the Union.

The Inter-State Council can inquire into disputes between States and investigate/discuss subjects of common interest between the Union and States.

The Inter-State Council was established in 1990 based on the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission. It is a recommendatory body on issues relating to Centre-State and inter-State relations. The Council comprises the Prime Minister (Chairman), Chief Ministers of all States, Chief Ministers of Union Territories having Legislative Assemblies, Administrators of Union Territories not having Legislative Assemblies, and six Central Cabinet Ministers nominated by the Prime Minister.