Schedules Archives

31. Which one of the following pairs of the Schedule in the Constitution o

Which one of the following pairs of the Schedule in the Constitution of India and its Content is not correctly matched ?

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Eighth Schedule : Languages

Second Schedule : The forms of oaths and affirmations

Fourth Schedule : Allocation of seats in the Council of States

Tenth Schedule : Provisions as to disqualification on the ground of defection

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Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC NDA-1 – 2016

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The correct answer is B) Second Schedule : The forms of oaths and affirmations.

– The Second Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the emoluments, allowances, privileges, and so on of: The President of India, the Governors of States, the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the House of the People, the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States, the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of a State, the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council of a State, the Judges of the Supreme Court, the Judges of the High Courts, and the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
– The Third Schedule deals with the Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for various constitutional functionaries (Union and State Ministers, Members of Parliament and State Legislature, Judges, CAG, etc.).
– Eighth Schedule lists the languages recognized by the Constitution.
– Fourth Schedule deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the States and Union Territories.
– Tenth Schedule contains provisions relating to disqualification of Members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the ground of defection (Anti-defection law).
– Therefore, the pairing of the Second Schedule with the forms of oaths and affirmations is incorrect.

There are currently 12 Schedules in the Constitution of India. They contain details about the provisions of the Articles of the Constitution. The original Constitution had 8 Schedules; four more were added through amendments.

32. The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India contains

The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India contains

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provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas

the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List

a list of recognized languages

provisions about the disqualification of Members of Legislatures on grounds of defection

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UPSC NDA-1 – 2015

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The Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India is crucial for defining the distribution of legislative powers between the Union (Central) government and the State governments. It contains three lists:
1. **Union List:** Contains subjects on which the Parliament has exclusive power to make laws (e.g., defence, external affairs, railways, banking).
2. **State List:** Contains subjects on which the State Legislatures have exclusive power to make laws (e.g., public order, police, public health and sanitation, agriculture).
3. **Concurrent List:** Contains subjects on which both the Parliament and the State Legislatures can make laws (e.g., education, forests, trade unions, marriage).
Therefore, the Seventh Schedule contains the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List.

The Seventh Schedule operationalizes the federal structure of the Indian Constitution by demarcating the legislative domains of the central and state governments, avoiding conflicts of jurisdiction.

The other options refer to different schedules of the Constitution:
A) Provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas are in the Fifth and Sixth Schedules.
C) A list of recognized languages is in the Eighth Schedule.
D) Provisions about the disqualification of Members of Legislatures on grounds of defection are in the Tenth Schedule.

33. Which of the following statements as per the Third Schedule of the Con

Which of the following statements as per the Third Schedule of the Constitution of India is/are correct?

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1. A Member of Parliament is free to take the oath or affirmation by ‘swearing in the name of God’.
2. Judge of the Supreme Court has to take the oath or affirmation by ‘swearing in the name of the Constitution of India’.

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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This question was previously asked in

UPSC Geoscientist – 2024

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The correct option is A.

The Third Schedule of the Constitution of India provides the forms of oaths or affirmations required to be made by various constitutional office holders and members of the legislature. These forms typically include the option to “swear in the name of God” or “solemnly affirm”.

Statement 1: “A Member of Parliament is free to take the oath or affirmation by ‘swearing in the name of God’.” The form of oath/affirmation for a Member of Parliament listed in the Third Schedule begins with “[I, A.B.,] do swear in the name of God/solemnly affirm…”. This provides the MP with the choice to either “swear in the name of God” or “solemnly affirm”. Therefore, this statement is correct.

Statement 2: “Judge of the Supreme Court has to take the oath or affirmation by ‘swearing in the name of the Constitution of India’.” The form of oath/affirmation for a Judge of the Supreme Court listed in the Third Schedule begins with “[I, A.B.,] having been appointed Chief Justice (or, a Judge) of the Supreme Court of India, do swear in the name of God/solemnly affirm that I will bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established…”. The oath requires allegiance to the Constitution, but the act of taking the oath itself is done by “swearing in the name of God” or “solemnly affirming”, not by “swearing in the name of the Constitution of India”. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Only Statement 1 is correct.

34. The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with:

The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with:

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languages.

Union, State and Concurrent Lists.

land reforms.

anti-defection.

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UPSC Geoscientist – 2020

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The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and State governments, listing subjects under the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.

This schedule enumerates the subjects on which the Union Parliament and the State Legislatures can make laws.

The Eighth Schedule lists the official languages, the Ninth Schedule contains acts and regulations that are protected from judicial review (though this has been subject to judicial scrutiny), and the Tenth Schedule deals with anti-defection provisions.

35. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. Criminal law i

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

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1. Criminal law is exclusively a subject under the State List of the Constitution of India.
2. Code of Civil Procedure falls under the Concurrent List of the Constitution of India.

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-2 – 2024

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The correct option is B) 2 only.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Criminal Law is not exclusively a subject under the State List. Both ‘Criminal law’ and ‘Criminal procedure’ are subjects included in the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India (Entries 1 and 2 respectively). This means both the Union Parliament and the State Legislatures can enact laws on these matters.
Statement 2 is correct. ‘Civil procedure’ is listed under Entry 13 of the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule. This includes the Code of Civil Procedure, meaning both the Parliament and State Legislatures have legislative competence over civil procedure.

The Seventh Schedule distributes legislative powers between the Union and the States. The Union List (List I) contains subjects on which Parliament has exclusive power. The State List (List II) contains subjects on which State Legislatures have exclusive power (under normal circumstances). The Concurrent List (List III) contains subjects on which both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate, with Union law prevailing in case of inconsistency.

36. Consider the following pairs of Schedule and Content of the Constituti

Consider the following pairs of Schedule and Content of the Constitution of India:
1. First Schedule : Forms of Oaths or Affirmations
2. Third Schedule : Allocation of seats in the Council of States
3. Fifth Schedule : Provisions related to the administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes
4. Ninth Schedule : Provisions related to the administration of tribal areas in certain States
How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2022

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Only one pair is correctly matched: The Fifth Schedule contains provisions relating to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.

Let’s examine the other pairs: 1. First Schedule lists the States and Union Territories and their territories (Forms of Oaths are in the Third Schedule). 2. Third Schedule contains the Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for various functionaries (Allocation of seats in the Council of States is in the Fourth Schedule). 4. Ninth Schedule contains acts and regulations that are protected from judicial review (Provisions related to the administration of tribal areas in certain States like Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram are in the Sixth Schedule).

The Schedules of the Constitution of India are lists that categorize and tabulate bureaucratic activity and policy of the Government. There are currently twelve schedules.

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37. Which one of the following is not correct ?

Which one of the following is not correct ?

Taxes on agricultural income is a subject under the State List.

Price control is a subject under the Concurrent List.

Insurance does not come under the Union List.

'Forests' is a subject under the Concurrent List.

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2021

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The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes legislative powers between the Union and the States. List I (Union List) contains subjects on which Parliament has exclusive power to make laws. List II (State List) contains subjects on which state legislatures have exclusive power. List III (Concurrent List) contains subjects on which both Parliament and state legislatures can make laws.
– Taxes on agricultural income is Entry 46 in the State List. (Correct)
– Price control is Entry 34 in the Concurrent List. (Correct)
– Insurance is Entry 47 in the Union List. Therefore, the statement “Insurance does not come under the Union List” is not correct.
– ‘Forests’ was originally in the State List but was transferred to the Concurrent List (Entry 17A) by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. (Correct)

– The Union List has 97 subjects (originally), the State List has 66 subjects (originally), and the Concurrent List has 47 subjects (originally). The numbers have slightly changed due to amendments.
– Insurance is a subject of national importance and is regulated by the central government, placing it under the Union List.

– Other important subjects in the Union List include Defence, Banking, Currency, Railways, Posts and Telegraphs, Foreign Affairs, Atomic Energy, etc.
– Other important subjects in the State List include Public Order, Police, Public Health and Sanitation, Local Government, Land, etc.
– Other important subjects in the Concurrent List include Criminal Law, Marriage and Divorce, Education, Trade Unions, etc.

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38. Which of the following statements relating to the Fifth Schedule of th

Which of the following statements relating to the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India is not correct ?

It relates to the special provision for administration of certain areas in the States other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

Tribal advisory councils are to be constituted to give advice under the Fifth Schedule.

The Governor is not authorized to make regulations to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of the Scheduled Tribes.

The Governors of the States in which there are scheduled areas have to submit reports to the President regarding the administration of such areas.

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2019

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Statement C is not correct.

The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any State other than the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram (which are covered under the Sixth Schedule). The Governor of a state containing Scheduled Areas has specific powers regarding their administration.

Statement A is correct as it describes the scope of the Fifth Schedule excluding the four northeastern states.
Statement B is correct; the Constitution provides for the constitution of Tribal Advisory Councils in states having Scheduled Areas to advise the Governor on matters pertaining to the welfare and advancement of the Scheduled Tribes.
Statement C is incorrect. Paragraph 5(2)(a) of the Fifth Schedule explicitly authorizes the Governor to make regulations for the peace and good government of any Scheduled Area, and these regulations may include prohibiting or restricting the transfer of land by or among members of the Scheduled Tribes.
Statement D is correct; the Governor of each state having Scheduled Areas is required to submit a report annually, or whenever required, to the President regarding the administration of the Scheduled Areas in that state.

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39. Which one of the following Schedules to the Constitution of India prov

Which one of the following Schedules to the Constitution of India provides for setting up of Autonomous District Councils?

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Third Schedule

Fourth Schedule

Fifth Schedule

Sixth Schedule

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2018

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The correct answer is D) Sixth Schedule.

The Sixth Schedule to the Constitution of India deals with the administration of Tribal Areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. It provides for the constitution of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) and Autonomous Regional Councils, which have powers to make laws on certain specified matters like land, forests, and local governance within their jurisdiction.

The Third Schedule contains forms of Oaths and Affirmations. The Fourth Schedule allocates seats in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha). The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than those covered by the Sixth Schedule.

40. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India has

Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India has fixed the number of Members of the Rajya Sabha to be elected from each State?

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Fifth Schedule

Third Schedule

Sixth Schedule

Fourth Schedule

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2017

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The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the allocation of seats in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) among the States and Union Territories.

The number of representatives from each State in the Rajya Sabha is fixed based on its population, as enumerated in this schedule.

The Fifth Schedule pertains to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. The Third Schedule contains the forms of oaths or affirmations. The Sixth Schedule deals with the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.