Environment and Sustainable Development

11. In the context of India, which of the following is/are considered to b

In the context of India, which of the following is/are considered to be practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture ?

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  1. Crop diversification
  2. Legume intensification
  3. Tensiometer use
  4. Vertical farming

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1, 2 and 3 only
3 only
4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2020
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All four practices are considered to be practices of eco-friendly agriculture.
Crop diversification enhances soil health and reduces reliance on synthetic inputs by breaking pest/disease cycles and utilizing nutrients more efficiently. Legume intensification improves soil fertility through nitrogen fixation, reducing the need for chemical fertilizers. Tensiometer use aids in precise irrigation scheduling, conserving water and energy. Vertical farming, when implemented sustainably (e.g., using renewable energy, closed-loop systems), reduces land use, water consumption, and transport emissions compared to conventional farming.
Eco-friendly agriculture encompasses a range of practices aimed at minimizing environmental impact, conserving natural resources, and promoting biodiversity while maintaining agricultural productivity. These practices often focus on soil health, water management, reduced chemical use, and resource efficiency.

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12. What is/are the advantage/advantages of zero tillage in agriculture?

What is/are the advantage/advantages of zero tillage in agriculture?

  • Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of previous crop.
  • Without the need for nursery of rice saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the soil is possible.
  • Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible.

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1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2020
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All three statements describe advantages of zero tillage in agriculture.
Statement 1 is correct. Zero tillage allows direct sowing of seeds into the soil without plowing or tilling. This method can be used after harvesting the previous crop (e.g., rice) without needing to remove or burn the residue, as the seeds are sown directly through the stubble using specialized equipment. This helps in managing crop residue and prevents environmental pollution caused by burning.
Statement 2 is correct. Direct Seeding of Rice (DSR) is a technique where rice seeds are sown directly into the field, bypassing the need for raising seedlings in a nursery and then transplanting them. Zero tillage systems are compatible with DSR, allowing farmers to transition away from the traditional transplanting method which requires significant water and nursery preparation.
Statement 3 is correct. Zero tillage reduces soil disturbance. Less disturbance helps in retaining soil organic carbon. Over time, this can lead to an increase in the soil’s organic matter content and facilitate carbon sequestration, potentially helping to mitigate climate change.
Other advantages of zero tillage include reduced fuel consumption (less machinery use), lower labor costs, improved soil structure over the long term, better water infiltration, and reduced soil erosion.

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13. What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture ? Controlling

What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture ?

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  • Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible.
  • Efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all other phosphatic fertilizers is possible.
  • Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible.
  • Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible.

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1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
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UPSC IAS – 2020
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The correct option is C, as statements 1, 3, and 4 describe advantages of fertigation, while statement 2 is incorrect regarding the efficient application of all phosphatic fertilizers, especially rock phosphate.
Fertigation is the integrated application of water-soluble fertilizers through an irrigation system. It delivers nutrients directly to the plant’s root zone along with water, offering potential benefits in nutrient use efficiency and management.
1. **Controlling alkalinity/pH:** Yes, certain fertilizers used in fertigation (like acidic fertilizers) can help modify the pH of the irrigation water and soil near the root zone, which can be beneficial in alkaline soils or with alkaline irrigation water.
2. **Efficient application of Phosphatic fertilizers:** While some soluble phosphatic fertilizers (e.g., monoammonium phosphate – MAP, diammonium phosphate – DAP after dissolution, urea phosphate) can be efficiently applied through fertigation, highly insoluble phosphatic fertilizers like rock phosphate are not suitable for fertigation systems as they can clog emitters and are not readily available to the plant in solution. Therefore, efficient application of *all* phosphatic fertilizers, particularly rock phosphate, is *not* possible via fertigation.
3. **Increased availability of nutrients:** Delivering nutrients directly to the active root zone in solution form enhances their availability and uptake by the plants compared to broadcasting or banding.
4. **Reduction in leaching:** Precise application of nutrients based on plant needs and growth stage, along with water management through irrigation, can reduce the amount of nutrients that leach below the root zone, minimizing environmental pollution and nutrient loss.

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14. Consider the following statements: The Environment Protection Act, 198

Consider the following statements:
The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to

  • 1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought
  • 2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Statement 1 is correct. The Environment Protection Act, 1986 (EPA) is an umbrella Act that gives broad powers to the Central Government to take all such measures as it deems necessary for the purpose of protecting and improving the quality of the environment. While the Act itself might not detail the exact procedure for public participation, it empowers the Central Government to make rules (Section 25) to carry out the purposes of the Act, which can and do include requirements for public consultation in processes like Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) notifications issued under the Act. Thus, the Act empowers the government to state the requirement and lay down the procedure for public participation through rules and notifications framed under it.

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Statement 2 is correct. Section 3(2)(iv) of the Environment Protection Act, 1986, explicitly empowers the Central Government to “lay down standards for the quality of environment in its various aspects, lay down standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources whatsoever”. This is a direct and core power granted by the Act.

The EPA, 1986 was enacted following the Bhopal Gas Tragedy and is a crucial piece of legislation for environmental governance in India. It delegates significant authority to the Central Government to coordinate activities of state governments, plan and execute nationwide programmes, and set standards for environmental quality and pollution control.

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15. Consider the following statements : 1. Under Ramsar Convention, it

Consider the following statements :

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  • 1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
  • 2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
  • 3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2019
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The correct answer is B) 2 and 3 only.
Let’s analyze each statement regarding the Ramsar Convention and India’s Wetlands Rules:
1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India: Incorrect. The Ramsar Convention requires contracting parties to designate suitable wetlands for inclusion in the List of Wetlands of International Importance (Ramsar Sites) and to promote the conservation and wise use of all wetlands in their territory. It does not mandate the protection and conservation of *all* wetlands in a strictly legal, uniform sense under the Convention itself, but encourages national actions. The primary obligation under the convention relates to the listed sites and promoting general wetland conservation.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention: Correct (interpreted in a broader sense). While not framed based on specific *recommendations* for these exact rules, the Rules were developed by the Indian government as a step towards fulfilling its commitments as a signatory to the Ramsar Convention, which encourages parties to establish national wetland policies and legislative frameworks. The Rules cite India’s commitments under the Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority: Correct. The 2010 Rules explicitly included the “drainage area or catchment region of the wetlands as determined by the concerned State Government or the Union territory Administration” within the scope of the regulated areas (Rule 3(1)(i) explanation). This provision was later removed in the 2017 rules.
Statement 1 is too strong; the Convention encourages but doesn’t mandate conservation of *all* wetlands in a blanket manner. Statement 3 is a verifiable fact about the 2010 rules. Statement 2 is plausible as the rules are India’s implementation response to being a Ramsar signatory. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

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16. The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to

The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at

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The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris
The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi
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The correct answer is B) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro.
The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) was launched in 2013 as a direct outcome of the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+20) held in Rio de Janeiro in 2012. The Rio+20 conference highlighted the importance of the green economy in the context of sustainable development and poverty eradication and called for initiatives to support countries in transitioning to greener economies. PAGE was created in response to this call.
PAGE is a collaboration among five UN agencies: UN Environment Programme (UNEP), International Labour Organization (ILO), UN Development Programme (UNDP), UN Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO), and UN Institute for Training and Research (UNITAR). It supports countries in developing and implementing green economy policies and strategies to achieve sustainable development goals.

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17. With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept

With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of ‘Conservation Agriculture’ assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture ?

  • 1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
  • 2. Adopting minimum tillage
  • 3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
  • 4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
  • 5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations

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1, 3 and 4
2, 3, 4 and 5
2, 4 and 5
1, 2, 3 and 5
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UPSC IAS – 2018
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The correct answer is C) 2, 4 and 5.
Conservation Agriculture (CA) is based on three key principles aimed at sustainable farming: minimum soil disturbance, permanent soil cover, and species diversity.
Let’s evaluate the statements based on CA principles:
1. Avoiding the monoculture practices: This aligns with the principle of species diversification (e.g., crop rotation, intercropping). This is a practice under CA.
2. Adopting minimum tillage: This is one of the three core principles of CA, reducing soil disturbance. This is a practice under CA.
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops: CA principles are applicable to various cropping systems, including some plantation crops. Avoiding all plantation crops is not a requirement of CA. This statement is incorrect.
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface: This is the principle of permanent soil cover (mulching), protecting the soil. This is a practice under CA.
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations: Crop rotation is a primary method for achieving species diversity, a core principle of CA. This is a practice under CA.
Statements 1, 2, 4, and 5 are all relevant practices within Conservation Agriculture. However, examining the options, Option C (2, 4, and 5) includes minimum tillage, soil cover (residues), and crop rotation. While statement 1 (avoiding monoculture) is also correct and related to diversity (like 5), options might prioritize concrete practices over broader principles or goals. Option C lists the three main *practices* that directly embody the core principles: reduced tillage (2), soil cover (4), and diversity via rotation (5). Option 1 (avoiding monoculture) is more of a consequence or goal achieved through practices like rotation. Given the options, C is the best fit comprising key CA practices.

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18. Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recen

Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities ?

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  • 1. Aral Sea
  • 2. Black Sea
  • 3. Lake Baikal

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1 only
2 and 3
2 only
1 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2018
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The correct option is A because only the Aral Sea has shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past primarily due to human activities.
The Aral Sea is a well-documented case of an ecological disaster caused by the large-scale diversion of its feeder rivers for irrigation projects, leading to its dramatic shrinkage and salinization.
The Aral Sea, located between Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan, began shrinking in the 1960s due to the diversion of the Amu Darya and Syr Darya rivers. The Black Sea faces environmental issues like pollution but has not shrunk or dried up. Lake Baikal in Russia, the world’s largest freshwater lake by volume, faces pollution threats but has not shrunk; it remains immense. Therefore, only the Aral Sea fits the description of significant human-induced shrinkage.

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19. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Po

How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?

  1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
  2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

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1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2018
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Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established by the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was constituted under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and its powers and functions were further expanded under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. Both bodies are established by Acts of Parliament, not executive orders.
Statement 2 is correct. The NGT is a specialized judicial body established to handle environmental cases, thus providing environmental justice and helping to reduce the burden of environmental litigation in higher courts. The CPCB is a regulatory authority primarily tasked with promoting cleanliness of streams and wells, improving air quality, conducting environmental monitoring, and enforcing pollution control standards. Their functions are distinct.
– NGT is a statutory body established by the NGT Act, 2010.
– CPCB is a statutory body established under the Water Act, 1974 and Air Act, 1981.
– NGT has judicial functions related to environmental disputes.
– CPCB has regulatory and executive functions related to pollution control.
NGT has jurisdiction over all civil cases involving substantial questions relating to the environment and acts as a fast-track court for environmental matters. CPCB advises the central government on pollution prevention and control and coordinates activities of State Pollution Control Boards.

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20. With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in the news, consider th

With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:

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  • It is a global action plan for sustainable development.
  • It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg in 2002.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2016
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The correct option is A, as statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
– Statement 1 is correct. Agenda 21 is indeed a comprehensive plan of action to be taken globally, nationally, and locally by organizations of the United Nations System, Governments, and Major Groups in every area where human impacts on the environment. It serves as a global action plan for sustainable development.
– Statement 2 is incorrect. Agenda 21 was an outcome of the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as the Earth Summit, held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992. The World Summit on Sustainable Development in Johannesburg in 2002 reviewed the progress made since the Rio Summit and further committed to sustainable development goals.
Agenda 21 is divided into four sections: Social and Economic Dimensions; Conservation and Management of Resources for Development; Strengthening the Role of Major Groups; and Means of Implementation.

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