UPSC Geoscientist

61. Which of the following is not an important centre of silk textile indu

Which of the following is not an important centre of silk textile industry in India?

Baramulla
Bankura
Kolar
Jamnagar
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Baramulla (Jammu and Kashmir), Bankura (West Bengal), and Kolar (Karnataka) are all known centres for silk production and/or silk textile industry in India, each specializing in different types or traditions of silk. Jamnagar, while a significant industrial city in Gujarat, is primarily known for petrochemicals, oil refining, and also has a history in cotton and wool textiles, including bandhani work. It is not considered a major centre for the *silk textile industry* in the same vein as the others listed.
– Karnataka, West Bengal, and Jammu and Kashmir are major silk-producing states.
– Jamnagar is more associated with other industries and textile types.
India is one of the largest producers of silk globally, producing various types including mulberry, eri, tasar, and muga silk. Important silk centres are spread across different states, reflecting regional specializations in sericulture and weaving.

62. Which of the following pairs of Forest Research Centres and their loca

Which of the following pairs of Forest Research Centres and their locations are correctly matched?

  • 1. Forest Research Centre for Eco-Rehabilitation : Prayagraj
  • 2. Forest Research Centre for Livelihood Extension : Shillong
  • 3. Forest Research Centre for Skill Development : Bhopal
  • 4. Forest Research Centre for Coastal Ecosystems : Visakhapatnam

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 and 3
1 and 4
2 and 3
2 and 4
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The Forest Research Centres mentioned are specialized centres under the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE). The Forest Research Centre for Eco-Rehabilitation (FRC-ER) is located in Prayagraj (formerly Allahabad), Uttar Pradesh. The Forest Research Centre for Coastal Ecosystems (FRC-CE) is located in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh. Therefore, pairs 1 and 4 are correctly matched.
– FRC-ER is at Prayagraj.
– FRC-CE is at Visakhapatnam.
– FRC-LE is at Agartala.
– FRC-SD is at Chindwara.
The Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of India. It has several research institutes and centres across the country focusing on various aspects of forestry research and education.

63. Which of the following statements as per the Third Schedule of the Con

Which of the following statements as per the Third Schedule of the Constitution of India is/are correct?

  • 1. A Member of Parliament is free to take the oath or affirmation by ‘swearing in the name of God’.
  • 2. Judge of the Supreme Court has to take the oath or affirmation by ‘swearing in the name of the Constitution of India’.

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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The correct option is A.
The Third Schedule of the Constitution of India provides the forms of oaths or affirmations required to be made by various constitutional office holders and members of the legislature. These forms typically include the option to “swear in the name of God” or “solemnly affirm”.
Statement 1: “A Member of Parliament is free to take the oath or affirmation by ‘swearing in the name of God’.” The form of oath/affirmation for a Member of Parliament listed in the Third Schedule begins with “[I, A.B.,] do swear in the name of God/solemnly affirm…”. This provides the MP with the choice to either “swear in the name of God” or “solemnly affirm”. Therefore, this statement is correct.

Statement 2: “Judge of the Supreme Court has to take the oath or affirmation by ‘swearing in the name of the Constitution of India’.” The form of oath/affirmation for a Judge of the Supreme Court listed in the Third Schedule begins with “[I, A.B.,] having been appointed Chief Justice (or, a Judge) of the Supreme Court of India, do swear in the name of God/solemnly affirm that I will bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established…”. The oath requires allegiance to the Constitution, but the act of taking the oath itself is done by “swearing in the name of God” or “solemnly affirming”, not by “swearing in the name of the Constitution of India”. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Only Statement 1 is correct.

64. Given below are four legal terms/maxims. Which one of them means ‘no m

Given below are four legal terms/maxims. Which one of them means ‘no man (person) shall be condemned unheard’?

Autrefois convict
Non bis in idem
Habeas Corpus
Audi Alteram Partem
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The correct option is D.
The legal maxim “Audi Alteram Partem” is a fundamental principle of natural justice which translates to “hear the other side” or “let the other party be heard”. It ensures that no person is condemned or punished without being given a fair opportunity to present their case.
A) Autrefois convict: A legal plea meaning the defendant has already been tried and convicted for the same offense. It is a facet of the rule against double jeopardy.
B) Non bis in idem: A Latin phrase meaning “not twice in the same (matter)”. It is the principle of double jeopardy, preventing a person from being tried or punished multiple times for the same crime.
C) Habeas Corpus: A legal writ, meaning “you shall have the body”. It is a procedural tool used to challenge unlawful detention, requiring the detaining authority to bring the person before a court to justify the detention.
D) Audi Alteram Partem: A principle of natural justice requiring that both sides in a dispute be given an opportunity to be heard. It directly means “hear the other side” and encapsulates the idea that no one should be condemned without a hearing. This matches the phrase “no man (person) shall be condemned unheard”.

65. Which one among the following statements is not correct as per the Con

Which one among the following statements is not correct as per the Constitution of India?

National Commission for Minorities appoints a Special Officer for linguistic minorities.
It shall be the duty of the Union to develop the Hindi language as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India.
The word 'Hindustani' is mentioned in the Constitution with reference to the enrichment of the Hindi language.
Every state shall endeavour to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to minority groups.
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The correct option is A.
The Constitution of India contains specific provisions regarding linguistic minorities, the development of the Hindi language, and instruction in mother tongue. Article 350B provides for the appointment of a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities by the President. Article 351 outlines the Union’s duty to promote Hindi. Article 350A mandates states to endeavour to provide primary education in the mother tongue for linguistic minorities.
Statement A: “National Commission for Minorities appoints a Special Officer for linguistic minorities.” This is incorrect. The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities (SOM) is a constitutional office established under Article 350B, and the SOM is appointed by the President of India. The National Commission for Minorities is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament, not a constitutional body responsible for this appointment.

Statement B: “It shall be the duty of the Union to develop the Hindi language as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India.” This is correct. Article 351 states this as a duty of the Union.

Statement C: “The word ‘Hindustani’ is mentioned in the Constitution with reference to the enrichment of the Hindi language.” This is correct. Article 351 mentions enriching Hindi “by assimilating without interfering with its genius, the forms, style and expressions used in Hindustani and in the other languages of India specified in the Eighth Schedule”.

Statement D: “Every state shall endeavour to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to minority groups.” This is correct. Article 350A mandates this endeavour by every State and local authority within the State.

The question asks for the statement that is *not* correct. Statement A is incorrect.

66. Consider the following statements : 1. The President of India may s

Consider the following statements :

  • 1. The President of India may specify a ‘race’ to be treated under the Scheduled Caste category for all purposes under the Constitution of India.
  • 2. The President of India may specify a ‘tribe’ to be treated under the Scheduled Caste category for all purposes under the Constitution of India.
  • 3. Parliament by law can include a caste or tribe in the list of Scheduled Castes.

How many of the above statements is/are correct ?

1
2
3
None
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The correct option is C.
Article 341 of the Constitution of India deals with Scheduled Castes. Clause (1) empowers the President to specify castes, races or tribes or parts thereof which shall be deemed to be Scheduled Castes. Clause (2) empowers Parliament by law to include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Castes.
Statement 1: “The President of India may specify a ‘race’ to be treated under the Scheduled Caste category…”. Article 341(1) states the President may “specify the castes, races or tribes or parts of or groups within castes, races or tribes which shall… be deemed to be Scheduled Castes”. The wording “races” is explicitly included in the list of groups that can be specified as Scheduled Castes. Therefore, this statement is correct according to the text of the Constitution.

Statement 2: “The President of India may specify a ‘tribe’ to be treated under the Scheduled Caste category…”. Article 341(1) also explicitly includes “tribes” in the list of groups that can be specified as Scheduled Castes, along with castes and races. While Scheduled Tribes are separately listed under Article 342 based on different criteria, Article 341(1) allows for the possibility of specifying a group socially identified as a ‘tribe’ to be deemed a Scheduled Caste if it meets the relevant criteria for SC inclusion (e.g., social disabilities analogous to untouchability). Therefore, this statement is also correct according to the text of the Constitution.

Statement 3: “Parliament by law can include a caste or tribe in the list of Scheduled Castes.” Article 341(2) states: “Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Castes specified in a notification issued under clause (1) any caste, race or tribe or part of or group within any caste, race or tribe…”. This power is explicitly vested in Parliament. Therefore, this statement is correct.

Based on the literal reading of Article 341, all three statements are correct.

67. The eyepiece of a telescope is a system of two biconvex lenses L1 and

The eyepiece of a telescope is a system of two biconvex lenses L1 and L2, of focal length 30 cm and 20 cm respectively, with a separation of 2 cm between them. Lens L2 faces the eye. This eyepiece is to be replaced by a single bi-convex lens L. Which one among the following is the correct combination of the focal length (F in cm) of the lens L and its distance (δ in cm) from the position of lens L1 ?

F = 12·5 and δ = 1·17
F = 12·5 and δ = 1·15
F = 11·5 and δ = 1·17
F = 11·5 and δ = 1·15
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The correct option is A.
The focal length (F) and position (δ) of an equivalent single lens replacing a system of two thin lenses (f₁ and f₂, separated by d) can be calculated using specific formulas related to lens combinations and principal planes. The formula for equivalent focal length is 1/F = 1/f₁ + 1/f₂ – d/(f₁f₂). The distance of the second principal plane (H₂) from the second lens (L₂) is β = -dF/f₁. The distance of the equivalent lens from the first lens (L₁) is typically the distance of the second principal plane from the first lens when light enters from L1 side (δ = d + β).
Given focal lengths f₁ = 30 cm, f₂ = 20 cm, and separation d = 2 cm. L₂ faces the eye, so light comes from L₁ then L₂.

Equivalent focal length F:
1/F = 1/f₁ + 1/f₂ – d/(f₁f₂)
1/F = 1/30 + 1/20 – 2/(30 * 20)
1/F = (2 + 3)/60 – 2/600
1/F = 5/60 – 1/300
1/F = 1/12 – 1/300
1/F = (25 – 1)/300 = 24/300 = 2/25
F = 25/2 = 12.5 cm.

This confirms F = 12.5 cm, eliminating options C and D.

The question asks for the distance (δ) of the equivalent lens L from the position of lens L₁. For a system of lenses, the equivalent single lens producing the same effect as the combination is placed at one of the principal planes. Since L₂ faces the eye, the light exits towards the eye after passing through L₂. The equivalent lens is typically placed at the second principal plane (H₂) of the system, as measured from the lens where light exits (L₂). The position of H₂ is measured relative to L₂.
The distance of the second principal plane H₂ from L₂ is given by β = -d * (F / f₁).
β = -2 cm * (12.5 cm / 30 cm) = -2 * (12.5/30) = -25/30 = -5/6 cm.
The negative sign indicates that H₂ is to the left of L₂ (towards L₁).
The distance of H₂ from L₁ is the distance L₁-L₂ plus the distance L₂-H₂.
Distance L₁-H₂ = d + β = 2 cm + (-5/6 cm) = 2 – 5/6 = (12 – 5)/6 = 7/6 cm.
7/6 cm ≈ 1.1667 cm.
The distance δ from L₁ is approximately 1.17 cm.

This matches option A (F = 12.5 and δ = 1.17).

68. Molar heat capacity at constant pressure of a diatomic gas is 3·5 R, w

Molar heat capacity at constant pressure of a diatomic gas is 3·5 R, where R is universal gas constant. The gas is heated by providing energy of 1400 J and is allowed to expand isobarically. Which one among the following represents the work done by the gas in this process ?

400 J
4900 J
560 J
280 J
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The correct option is A.
For an ideal gas, the molar heat capacities at constant pressure (C_p) and constant volume (C_v) are related by Mayer’s relation: C_p – C_v = R. The work done by a gas during an isobaric (constant pressure) process is given by W = PΔV = nRΔT. The heat added during an isobaric process is Q = nC_pΔT. By the First Law of Thermodynamics, Q = ΔU + W, where ΔU = nC_vΔT.
Given molar heat capacity at constant pressure C_p = 3.5 R = (7/2)R.
Using Mayer’s relation, C_v = C_p – R = (7/2)R – R = (5/2)R.
The gas is heated isobarically, and energy Q = 1400 J is provided.
For an isobaric process, Q = nC_pΔT, where n is the number of moles and ΔT is the temperature change.
So, 1400 J = n * (7/2)R * ΔT.
By the First Law of Thermodynamics, Q = ΔU + W.
Work done by the gas W = Q – ΔU.
Change in internal energy for an ideal gas ΔU = nC_vΔT.
W = Q – nC_vΔT.
From the isobaric heat equation, nΔT = Q / C_p = 1400 / (7/2)R = 1400 * (2 / 7R) = 2800 / 7R = 400 / R.
Now substitute this into the work equation:
W = Q – nC_vΔT = 1400 – (nΔT) * C_v = 1400 – (400/R) * (5/2)R
W = 1400 – 400 * (5/2) = 1400 – 200 * 5 = 1400 – 1000 = 400 J.

Alternatively, W = nRΔT.
From Q = nC_pΔT, we have nΔT = Q/C_p.
W = R * (Q/C_p) = Q * (R/C_p).
Given C_p = (7/2)R, so R/C_p = R / ((7/2)R) = 2/7.
W = 1400 J * (2/7) = 200 * 2 = 400 J.

69. An ice bullet of temperature – 10°C is fired upon an object. The bulle

An ice bullet of temperature – 10°C is fired upon an object. The bullet spends 20% of its kinetic energy in penetrating into the object and remaining kinetic energy is spent into melting the bullet at 0°C. The latent heat of fusion of ice is 3·4 × 10⁵ J kg⁻¹ and its specific heat capacity is 2000 J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹. Which one among the following is the correct initial speed of the bullet ?

300√10 m s⁻¹
3600 m s⁻¹
300√5 m s⁻¹
900 m s⁻¹
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The correct option is A.
The initial kinetic energy of the ice bullet is converted into different forms of energy upon impact: a portion for penetration and the rest for heating the ice to its melting point (0°C) and then melting it at 0°C.
Let m be the mass of the ice bullet and v be its initial speed.
Initial kinetic energy (KE) = (1/2)mv².
20% of KE is spent on penetration = 0.2 * (1/2)mv² = 0.1mv².
Remaining KE is spent on heating the ice from -10°C to 0°C and melting it at 0°C.
Remaining KE = KE – 0.1mv² = 0.9mv².
Energy required to heat mass m of ice from -10°C to 0°C:
Q_heat = m * c_ice * ΔT = m * (2000 J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹) * (0 – (-10)) K = m * 2000 * 10 = 20000m J.
Energy required to melt mass m of ice at 0°C:
Q_melt = m * L = m * (3.4 × 10⁵ J kg⁻¹) = 340000m J.
Total energy required for heating and melting = Q_heat + Q_melt = 20000m + 340000m = 360000m J.
This energy comes from the remaining KE:
0.9mv² = 360000m
0.9v² = 360000
v² = 360000 / 0.9 = 3600000 / 9 = 400000.
v = √400000 = √((4 × 10⁵) * 10/10) = √(40 × 10⁴) = 100 * √40 = 100 * √(4 * 10) = 100 * 2√10 = 200√10 m/s.

Wait, let’s re-read the problem carefully: “remaining kinetic energy is spent into melting the bullet at 0°C”. This phrasing usually means only the phase change energy is considered from the remaining KE. If this interpretation is correct, the 80% KE is used *only* for melting at 0°C, implying the energy for heating from -10°C to 0°C is either negligible or sourced otherwise (e.g., from the 20% penetration energy, which is unlikely). Let’s retry with this interpretation:

Remaining KE (80% of total KE) = 0.8 * (1/2)mv² = 0.4mv².
This is spent on melting the bullet at 0°C:
0.4mv² = Q_melt = m * L = m * 3.4 × 10⁵
0.4v² = 3.4 × 10⁵
v² = (3.4 × 10⁵) / 0.4 = (3.4 × 10⁵) / (4/10) = (3.4 × 10⁵) * (10/4) = (34/4) × 10⁵ = 8.5 × 10⁵
v = √(8.5 × 10⁵) = √(85 × 10⁴) = 100 * √85.
√85 is approximately 9.22. v ≈ 922 m/s. This doesn’t match any option well.

Let’s go back to the first interpretation, where 80% KE covers both heating and melting.
0.8 * (1/2)mv² = m * c_ice * ΔT + m * L
0.4v² = m(c_ice * ΔT + L)
0.4v² = 2000 * 10 + 3.4 × 10⁵ = 20000 + 340000 = 360000
v² = 360000 / 0.4 = 900000
v = √900000 = √(90 × 10⁴) = 100 * √90 = 100 * √(9 × 10) = 100 * 3√10 = 300√10 m/s.
300√10 ≈ 300 * 3.162 = 948.6 m/s. This matches option A exactly.

The phrase “melting the bullet at 0°C” in the problem statement, combined with providing the specific heat capacity of ice and the initial temperature of -10°C, strongly suggests that the energy required to raise the temperature to 0°C must also be accounted for by the available KE. Therefore, the 80% KE is used for the entire process from -10°C to liquid water at 0°C (heating ice + melting ice).

70. A cup of tea is placed at a table, and the room temperature is 35°C. T

A cup of tea is placed at a table, and the room temperature is 35°C. The tea cools from 90°C to 70°C in 5 minutes. Which one among the following is the correct time taken for the tea to cool from 70°C to 50°C ?

5 minutes
7 minutes
9 minutes
11 minutes
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The correct option is C.
According to Newton’s Law of Cooling, the rate of cooling of an object is proportional to the temperature difference between the object and its surroundings. That is, dθ/dt ∝ (θ – θ₀), where θ is the object’s temperature and θ₀ is the surrounding temperature. For small temperature ranges, the average rate of cooling in an interval can be approximated as proportional to the average temperature difference in that interval.
Let the surrounding temperature be θ₀ = 35°C.
In the first interval, the tea cools from 90°C to 70°C in t₁ = 5 minutes.
The temperature change is Δθ₁ = 90 – 70 = 20°C.
The average temperature in this interval is θ_avg₁ = (90 + 70) / 2 = 80°C.
The average temperature difference is ΔT₁ = θ_avg₁ – θ₀ = 80 – 35 = 45°C.
The average rate of cooling in this interval is approximately Rate₁ ≈ Δθ₁ / t₁ = 20°C / 5 min = 4°C/min.
By Newton’s Law of Cooling, Rate₁ ∝ ΔT₁, so 4 ∝ 45.

In the second interval, the tea cools from 70°C to 50°C. Let the time taken be t₂.
The temperature change is Δθ₂ = 70 – 50 = 20°C.
The average temperature in this interval is θ_avg₂ = (70 + 50) / 2 = 60°C.
The average temperature difference is ΔT₂ = θ_avg₂ – θ₀ = 60 – 35 = 25°C.
The average rate of cooling in this interval is approximately Rate₂ ≈ Δθ₂ / t₂ = 20°C / t₂.
By Newton’s Law of Cooling, Rate₂ ∝ ΔT₂, so (20/t₂) ∝ 25.

Taking the ratio of the rates:
Rate₁ / Rate₂ = ΔT₁ / ΔT₂
(4) / (20/t₂) = 45 / 25
4t₂ / 20 = 9 / 5
t₂ / 5 = 9 / 5
t₂ = 9 minutes.
The time taken for the tea to cool from 70°C to 50°C is 9 minutes.

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