UPSC CDS-1 Archives

41. The idea of ‘Farr-i Izadi’, on which the Mughal kingship was based, wa

The idea of ‘Farr-i Izadi’, on which the Mughal kingship was based, was first developed by which one of the following Sufi saints?

Shihabuddin Suhrawardi

Nizamuddin Auliya

Ibn al-Arabi

Bayazid Bistami

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The idea of ‘Farr-i Izadi’, on which the Mughal kingship was based, was first developed by the Sufi saint Shihabuddin Suhrawardi.

‘Farr-i Izadi’ means ‘Divine Light’ or ‘Divine Effulgence’. This concept, signifying a divine effulgence that transmits sovereignty and legitimacy to the ruler, was articulated by the 12th-century Persian Sufi philosopher Shihabuddin Suhrawardi, the founder of the Illuminationist (Ishraqi) school. The Mughal emperors, particularly Akbar, incorporated this idea into their political ideology to assert their divine right to rule and project an image of a ruler possessing divine wisdom and authority, independent of orthodox religious clergy.

Akbar’s court historian, Abul Fazl, prominently used the concept of ‘Farr-i Izadi’ in his historical works, such as the Akbarnama and Ain-i Akbari, to legitimize Akbar’s universal kingship. He described the ruler as a recipient of this divine light, which bestowed upon him wisdom, justice, and the capacity for universal compassion, making him the ideal sovereign.

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42. Name the platform used for ritual purposes by the kings of the Vijayan

Name the platform used for ritual purposes by the kings of the Vijayanagara Empire.

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Mahanavami Dibba

Lotus Mahal

Hazara Rama

Virupaksha

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The Mahanavami Dibba was the platform used for ritual purposes by the kings of the Vijayanagara Empire.

The Mahanavami Dibba is a large, elaborately carved stone platform located in the Royal Centre of Hampi, the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire. It served as the main stage for royal ceremonies, particularly the Mahanavami festival (also known as Dussehra), where the king presided over parades, sports, and religious rituals demonstrating the empire’s power and prosperity.

The platform is layered and features numerous carvings depicting processions, battles, hunting scenes, dancers, and various aspects of daily life and courtly activities during the empire. The rituals performed here reinforced the king’s authority and connection to the divine. Lotus Mahal was a secular building, Hazara Rama temple was a royal temple, and Virupaksha temple was the main temple dedicated to the patron deity of the empire, but none of these were the primary ritual platform like the Mahanavami Dibba.

43. Who among the following was the founder of Phoenix Settlement?

Who among the following was the founder of Phoenix Settlement?

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Mahatma Gandhi

B. R. Ambedkar

Rabindranath Tagore

Swami Vivekananda

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Mahatma Gandhi was the founder of the Phoenix Settlement.

The Phoenix Settlement was established by Mahatma Gandhi in 1904 near Durban, South Africa. It was one of his first attempts at creating a self-sufficient community based on the principles of simple living, hard work, and equality, which later became the foundation for his ashram model.

Inspired by John Ruskin’s book ‘Unto This Last’, Gandhi decided to establish the settlement on a plot of land. Residents were expected to share labour, live simply, and follow principles of non-violence and communal living. The settlement served as a base for printing the newspaper ‘Indian Opinion’, which Gandhi used to voice the grievances of the Indian community in South Africa.

44. Consider the following statement : “A sound body means one which bends

Consider the following statement :
“A sound body means one which bends itself to the spirit and is always a ready instrument at its service.”
The above statement is attributed to

Sardar Patel

Winston Churchill

Mahatma Gandhi

Baden-Powell

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The statement “A sound body means one which bends itself to the spirit and is always a ready instrument at its service” is attributed to Mahatma Gandhi.

Mahatma Gandhi’s philosophy emphasized the importance of control over the body and mind as essential for spiritual growth and service. He viewed the physical body not as an end in itself, but as an instrument to serve higher ideals and the spirit, particularly in the pursuit of truth (Satyagraha) and non-violence.

Gandhi’s teachings on health and self-discipline were integral to his wider philosophy of Swaraj (self-rule), which included mastery over oneself. He believed that a strong and disciplined body was necessary to endure the hardships of resistance and to serve the community effectively. This quote reflects his holistic approach to life, where physical well-being is intertwined with spiritual and ethical development.

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45. Which of the following statements about the olive ridley turtles is/ar

Which of the following statements about the olive ridley turtles is/are correct?

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They are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.
They live in warm waters of Pacific, Atlantic and Indian Oceans.
The Coromandel Coast in India is the largest mass nesting site for the olive ridley turtles.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 only

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Let’s evaluate the statements about olive ridley turtles:
1. They are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world. This statement is correct. Olive ridleys are indeed the smallest sea turtles and globally the most numerous.
2. They live in warm waters of Pacific, Atlantic and Indian Oceans. This statement is correct. Olive ridleys have a wide distribution, inhabiting tropical and warm temperate waters of the Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian Oceans.
3. The Coromandel Coast in India is the largest mass nesting site for the olive ridley turtles. This statement is incorrect. While olive ridleys nest on the Coromandel Coast (like near Chennai), the *largest* mass nesting site (known as arribada) in India, and one of the largest globally, is Gahirmatha Beach in Odisha, which lies on the Bay of Bengal coast, north of the Coromandel Coast.
Based on the analysis, statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect.

– Olive ridleys are the smallest and most common sea turtle species.
– They are found in warm waters worldwide.
– India is an important nesting ground, particularly known for ‘arribadas’ (mass nesting events).
– Gahirmatha in Odisha is the most significant mass nesting site in India.

Olive ridley turtles are listed as Vulnerable by the IUCN. Apart from Gahirmatha, other mass nesting sites in India include Rushikulya rookery and Devi river mouth in Odisha. Nesting also occurs in scattered locations along the coasts of Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and other states, but usually not in mass nesting events on the scale of Odisha’s major sites. Threats to olive ridleys include entanglement in fishing gear, habitat loss, poaching, and climate change.

46. eBiz is one of the integrated services projects and part of the 31 Mis

eBiz is one of the integrated services projects and part of the 31 Mission Mode Projects (MMPs) under the National e-Governance Plan of the Government of India. eBiz is being implemented under the guidance and aegis of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, Ministry of Commerce and Industry by

Tata Consultancy Services

Infosys Technologies Limited

Wipro

HCL Technologies

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eBiz is a Mission Mode Project under the National e-Governance Plan of the Government of India, aimed at providing integrated services for businesses. It is being implemented under the guidance of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT, formerly DIPP), Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The project implementation was assigned through a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model, and M/s. Infosys Technologies Limited was selected as the concessionaire for implementing and operating the eBiz portal.

– eBiz is a G2B (Government-to-Business) portal.
– It falls under the National e-Governance Plan.
– It is implemented by the DPIIT.
– The private partner for implementation is Infosys Technologies Limited.

eBiz aims to create a business-friendly environment in India by simplifying regulatory processes and procedures, providing single-window access for obtaining licenses, permits, and approvals required for starting and operating a business. It integrates various services from central and state government departments.

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47. Growth in production (in percent) of which one of the following core i

Growth in production (in percent) of which one of the following core industries in India during the period 2015-2016 was negative?

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Natural gas

Refinery products

Fertilizer

Coal

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To answer this question, we need to check the growth rates of the production of the specified core industries during the financial year 2015-2016. Data from the Ministry of Commerce & Industry shows that the growth rates for the Eight Core Industries during 2015-16 were as follows: Coal (+4.8%), Crude Oil (-1.4%), Natural Gas (-0.7%), Refinery Products (+7.9%), Fertilizers (+8.4%), Steel (+0.5%), Cement (+4.6%), Electricity (+5.7%).
Among the options provided, only Natural Gas showed negative growth in production during 2015-2016. Crude Oil also had negative growth, but it is not among the options.

– The question requires recalling or accessing specific economic data for a particular period.
– Core industries’ growth is a key economic indicator.
– Production growth can be positive, negative, or zero depending on various factors.

The Eight Core Industries comprise about 40.27% of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). Understanding the performance of these industries provides insights into the overall health of the industrial sector and the economy. The data for core industries is regularly released by the Office of the Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).

48. Consider the following statements about National Wildlife Action Plan

Consider the following statements about National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) of India for 2017-2031 :

1. This is the Third National Wildlife Action Plan.
2. The NWAP is unique as this is the first time India has recognized the concerns relating to climate change impact on wildlife.
3. The NWAP has ten components.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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Let’s evaluate the statements about the National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) 2017-2031:
1. This is the Third National Wildlife Action Plan. This statement is correct. The previous plans were 1983-2001 and 2002-2016.
2. The NWAP is unique as this is the first time India has recognized the concerns relating to climate change impact on wildlife. This statement is correct. The Third NWAP explicitly includes climate change and its impact on wildlife and habitats as a key theme for the first time.
3. The NWAP has ten components. This statement is incorrect. The Third NWAP is structured around 17 themes. While these themes cover various aspects of wildlife conservation, they are not typically referred to as “ten components”.
Based on the analysis, statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect.

– India’s National Wildlife Action Plans guide conservation efforts.
– The current plan (2017-2031) is the third such plan.
– The third NWAP is significant for including climate change impacts.
– The plan is organized into themes, not specifically ten components.

The 17 themes of the Third NWAP cover areas such as strengthening protected area network, landscape-level conservation, conservation of threatened species, mitigation of human-wildlife conflict, climate change adaptation, coastal and marine ecosystem conservation, ecotourism, research, capacity building, public awareness, etc.

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49. Which one of the following statements in respect of the States of Indi

Which one of the following statements in respect of the States of India is not correct?

States in India cannot have their own Constitutions.

The State of Jammu and Kashmir has its own Constitution.

States in India do not have the right to secede from the Union of India.

The maximum number of members in the Council of Ministers of Delhi can be 15 percent of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly.

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The question asks for the statement that is *not* correct in respect of the States of India.
Statement A is correct: States in India cannot have their own Constitutions separate from the Constitution of India. The Constitution of India is the supreme law applicable to all states.
Statement B was correct before August 2019: The State of Jammu and Kashmir had its own Constitution, adopted in 1956, under the special provisions of Article 370. This is no longer the case after the abrogation of Article 370. However, considering the timeframe of UPSC questions (often based on established facts prior to recent changes), this statement was historically correct for a State of India.
Statement C is correct: States in India do not have the right to secede from the Union of India. The Union is considered indestructible.
Statement D is not correct: The maximum number of members in the Council of Ministers of Delhi is fixed at ten percent (10%) of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly by Article 239AA(4). The 15% limit was introduced by the 91st Amendment Act, 2003, but it applies to the Council of Ministers of states (except Delhi, for which a specific limit exists). Delhi is a Union Territory with a legislative assembly, not a full State.
Given the options, statement D is definitively incorrect as per the specific constitutional provision for Delhi, whereas statement B, while no longer true, was a correct historical fact about a State of India.

– India has a single Constitution applicable to all states (with historical exceptions like J&K).
– States cannot secede from the Union.
– The size of the Council of Ministers in states is generally limited to 15% of the Assembly strength (by the 91st Amendment).
– For Delhi specifically, the limit for the Council of Ministers is 10% of the Assembly strength.

The 91st Amendment Act, 2003, aimed to limit the size of the Council of Ministers and prevent large ministries. It inserted clause (1A) into Article 164 regarding the size of the Council of Ministers in states, setting the 15% cap (with a minimum of 12 members). For Delhi, Article 239AA governs its status as a Union Territory with special provisions, including the 10% limit on the Council of Ministers size.

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50. Which one of the following became a part of China in 1997 following th

Which one of the following became a part of China in 1997 following the principle of ‘one country, two systems’?

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Tibet

Hong Kong

Xinjiang

Inner Mongolia

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Hong Kong became a part of China in 1997 following the principle of ‘one country, two systems’. It was formerly a British colony and was handed over to China on July 1, 1997. Under this principle, Hong Kong was designated as a Special Administrative Region (SAR) of the People’s Republic of China, retaining its economic and administrative systems (including legal, currency, customs, immigration) for a period of 50 years, while being subject to Chinese sovereignty.

– The ‘one country, two systems’ principle was applied to former colonial territories returned to China.
– Hong Kong was returned by the UK in 1997 under this principle.
– Macau was returned by Portugal in 1999, also under this principle.

Tibet, Xinjiang, and Inner Mongolia are Autonomous Regions within mainland China and are not governed under the ‘one country, two systems’ framework designed for SARs like Hong Kong and Macau. While they have some degree of autonomy, their political and economic systems are integrated with mainland China’s socialist system.