31. Which one of the following is not a component of Revenue Receipts of

Which one of the following is not a component of Revenue Receipts of the Union Government?

Corporate tax receipts
Dividends and profits
Disinvestment receipts
Interest receipts
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2017
Revenue Receipts are receipts that do not lead to a claim on the government and do not reduce government assets. Corporate tax receipts, dividends and profits (from PSUs), and interest receipts (on loans given by the government) are all recurring receipts that fall under Revenue Receipts. Disinvestment receipts are generated from the sale of government assets (shares in Public Sector Undertakings), which is a non-recurring receipt and falls under Capital Receipts because it reduces government assets.
Government receipts are classified into Revenue Receipts and Capital Receipts. Revenue Receipts are regular and non-debt creating, while Capital Receipts are irregular and can be debt-creating or asset-reducing.
Examples of Revenue Receipts include tax revenues (income tax, corporate tax, GST, customs, excise) and non-tax revenues (interest receipts, dividends, profits, fees, fines). Examples of Capital Receipts include market borrowings, external loans, disinvestment receipts, recovery of loans, and small savings.

32. Which of the following are the powers of the Supreme Court of India?

Which of the following are the powers of the Supreme Court of India?

  • Original jurisdiction in a dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
  • The power to hear appeals from the High Courts
  • Passing decrees and orders for doing justice in any matter before it
  • Render advice to the President of India in matters of law

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1, 2, 3 and 4
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2017
Statement 1 is correct; the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in disputes between the Government of India and one or more States (Article 131). Statement 2 is correct; the Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal and hears appeals from High Courts (Articles 132, 133, 134). Statement 3 is correct; under Article 142, the Supreme Court can pass such decrees or make such orders as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter before it. Statement 4 is correct; the Supreme Court has advisory jurisdiction under Article 143 to render advice to the President on questions of law or fact of public importance.
The Supreme Court of India possesses wide-ranging powers, including original, appellate, advisory, and review jurisdictions, as well as powers to issue writs and do complete justice.
Article 141 states that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India. The Supreme Court also has the power of judicial review, meaning it can examine the constitutional validity of legislative enactments and executive orders of both the Central and State governments.

33. Which of the following statements regarding Indian federal system is/a

Which of the following statements regarding Indian federal system is/are correct?

  • All States have equal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
  • Consent of a State is not required for altering its boundaries.
  • There is no dual citizenship in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1, 2 and 3
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2017
Statement 1 is incorrect because representation of States in the Rajya Sabha is based on population, not equal for all States (Fourth Schedule of the Constitution). Statement 2 is correct as the Parliament can alter the boundaries or names of existing States without their consent (Article 3 of the Constitution). Statement 3 is correct as the Constitution of India provides for single citizenship for the entire country, not dual citizenship. Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
The Indian federal system exhibits features of both federal and unitary systems. Unequal representation in Rajya Sabha and Parliament’s power to alter state boundaries are considered unitary features.
Article 3 allows Parliament to form new States, increase or decrease the area of any State, and alter the boundaries or name of any State by law. The procedure requires a Bill to be introduced in Parliament only on the recommendation of the President, and the President is required to refer the Bill to the concerned State Legislature for expressing its views within a specified period. However, Parliament is not bound by the views of the State Legislature.

34. Which of the following statements with regard to Panchayats in India a

Which of the following statements with regard to Panchayats in India are correct?

  • Seats in a Panchayat are filled by direct election from the territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area.
  • The Gram Sabha is the body of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village within the Panchayat area.
  • The Panchayats work on the principle of constitutional autonomy.
  • The State Legislature may by law endow the Panchayats with the power and authority to enable them to function.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1, 2 and 3
2, 3 and 4
1, 2 and 4
1 and 4 only
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2017
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct regarding Panchayats in India as per the constitutional provisions (Part IX). Statement 1 is correct; Article 243C(2) mandates that all seats in a Panchayat are filled by direct election from territorial constituencies. Statement 2 is correct; Article 243(b) defines Gram Sabha as the body of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village within the Panchayat area. Statement 4 is correct; Article 243G empowers the State Legislature to endow Panchayats with such powers and authority as necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self-government. Statement 3 is incorrect; while Panchayats are constitutional bodies of local self-government, they do not function on the principle of complete constitutional autonomy; their powers, structure, and finances are subject to the laws passed by the State Legislature.
– Panchayat members are directly elected.
– Gram Sabha consists of registered voters in a village.
– State Legislatures determine the powers and authority of Panchayats.
– Panchayats function under the framework of the Constitution and state laws, not with complete autonomy.
Part IX of the Constitution, added by the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992, provides the framework for Panchayati Raj Institutions in India, making them constitutional bodies and defining their basic structure, composition, duration, reservations, powers, and finances, largely implemented through state legislation.

35. Who among the following won a Gold medal for India in Men’s Javelin Th

Who among the following won a Gold medal for India in Men’s Javelin Throw event at the 2016 Rio Paralympic Games?

Rinku Hooda
Devendra Jhajharia
Sundar Singh Gurjar
Mariyappan Thangavelu
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2017
Devendra Jhajharia won the Gold medal for India in the Men’s Javelin Throw F46 event at the 2016 Rio Paralympic Games. He set a new world record in the process.
– Devendra Jhajharia is a multiple Paralympic gold medallist in Javelin Throw (F46).
– He won gold in both the 2004 Athens and 2016 Rio Paralympics.
– Mariyappan Thangavelu won gold in High Jump at the same games.
Devendra Jhajharia is one of India’s most decorated Paralympians. The F46 classification is for athletes with arm deficiency, impaired muscle power, or limb deficiency.

36. Arrange the following Commissions chronologically on the basis of thei

Arrange the following Commissions chronologically on the basis of their date of setting up :

  1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission
  2. The Eleventh Finance Commission
  3. Punchhi Commission
  4. Sarkaria Commission

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

4, 2, 1, 3
4, 3, 2, 1
3, 2, 4, 1
3, 4, 1, 2
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2017
The correct chronological order of the Commissions based on their date of setting up is Sarkaria Commission (1983), Eleventh Finance Commission (1998), Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2005), and Punchhi Commission (2007).
1. Second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) was set up in 2005.
2. The Eleventh Finance Commission was appointed in 1998.
3. The Punchhi Commission was set up in 2007.
4. The Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983.
Arranging chronologically from earliest to latest: 1983 (Sarkaria), 1998 (Eleventh FC), 2005 (Second ARC), 2007 (Punchhi). This corresponds to the sequence 4, 2, 1, 3.
– Sarkaria Commission: 1983
– Eleventh Finance Commission: 1998
– Second Administrative Reforms Commission: 2005
– Punchhi Commission: 2007
Sarkaria and Punchhi Commissions dealt with Centre-State relations. Finance Commissions recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and states. Administrative Reforms Commissions provide recommendations for reforming public administration.

37. To be eligible to contest election under the Haryana Panchayati Raj (A

To be eligible to contest election under the Haryana Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2015, a candidate should

  • 1. have a functional toilet at home
  • 2. have payment slips of power bills
  • 3. not be a cooperative loan defaulter
  • 4. have studied minimum matriculation irrespective of category

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
3 and 4 only
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2017
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct eligibility criteria introduced by the Haryana Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2015. Statement 1 is correct; having a functional toilet at home was made mandatory. Statement 2 is correct; the Act required candidates to not be defaulters of electricity bills, implying having paid bills or no arrears. Statement 3 is correct; not being a cooperative loan defaulter was also a specified condition. Statement 4 is incorrect; the educational qualification was set at Matriculation (Class 10) for the General category but Middle Pass (Class 8) for Women and Scheduled Castes contesting for the post of Panch, so it was not irrespective of category.
– The Act introduced minimum qualifications related to hygiene, debt repayment, and education.
– Having a functional toilet was a key requirement.
– Being a defaulter of electricity or cooperative loans was a disqualification.
– Educational qualifications varied by category.
The Haryana Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2015, was controversial and challenged in court. The Supreme Court upheld the validity of the educational qualification criteria but struck down the criteria regarding the number of children. Other criteria like functional toilet and non-defaulting status were generally accepted or upheld.

38. Which of the following statements with regard to the speech of Mahatma

Which of the following statements with regard to the speech of Mahatma Gandhi at the opening of the Banaras Hindu University are correct?

  • 1. He charged the Indian elite with a lack of concern for the labouring poor.
  • 2. He asserted that our salvation can come only through the farmers.
  • 3. He highlighted the plight of the untouchables.
  • 4. He promised to take up the cause of the mill owners of Ahmedabad.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1, 2, 3 and 4
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2017
Statements 1, 2, and 3 accurately reflect key themes of Mahatma Gandhi’s speech at the opening of the Banaras Hindu University in February 1916. Statement 1 is correct; Gandhi strongly criticized the Indian elite for their disconnect from the common people and their lack of concern for the labouring poor. Statement 2 is correct; he emphasized that India’s true strength and salvation lay with the masses, particularly the peasants and workers, advocating for the need to work for their upliftment and identify with them. Statement 3 is correct; while his major campaigns for the untouchables came later, his speech encompassed a call to address social evils and the plight of the downtrodden as part of the self-purification necessary for achieving Swaraj, implicitly including the issue of untouchability within the broader context of serving the poorest and most marginalized. Statement 4 is incorrect; Gandhi did not promise to take up the cause of Ahmedabad mill owners in this speech; his involvement with the Ahmedabad mill strike occurred in 1918.
– Gandhi criticized the elite’s disconnect from the poor masses.
– He stressed the importance of peasants and workers for India’s future.
– He highlighted the need to address the plight of the poor and marginalized sections of society.
This speech is considered one of Gandhi’s first major public addresses in India after his return from South Africa. It set the tone for his future political agenda, emphasizing the importance of working with and for the masses (peasants and workers) and focusing on social reform alongside political goals.

39. Which of the following statements about the Shiromani Gurudwara Praban

Which of the following statements about the Shiromani Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee (SGPC) are correct?

  • 1. It began as the political wing of the Singh Sabhas in the late 19th century.
  • 2. It was formed in 1920 as part of the upcoming Akali movement.
  • 3. It was founded to reclaim control of the Sikh shrines from the government manipulated loyalist committees.
  • 4. It formed the Akali Dal to coordinate groups (Jathas) to reclaim control of the shrines.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1, 3 and 4
2, 3 and 4
2 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2017
Statements 2 and 3 are correct regarding the Shiromani Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee (SGPC). Statement 2 is correct; the SGPC was formed in November 1920 as a key part of the Gurdwara Reform Movement, which evolved into the Akali movement. Statement 3 is correct; its primary purpose was to take control of the historical Sikh shrines (Gurdwaras) from the hands of corrupt hereditary caretakers (Mahants) who were often seen as loyalist and manipulated by the British government. Statement 1 is incorrect; the SGPC emerged much later than the Singh Sabhas and was a religious management body, not a political wing of the Singh Sabhas. Statement 4 is incorrect; the Akali Dal was formed by the Akalis shortly after the SGPC (in December 1920) specifically to organize and lead the agitations (Jathas) for Gurdwara reform, not the other way around. The SGPC was the body established to manage the Gurdwaras once control was secured.
– SGPC was formed in 1920 as part of the Gurdwara Reform/Akali movement.
– Its main objective was to gain control of Sikh Gurdwaras from Mahants.
– The Akali Dal was formed to lead the agitations for this cause.
The Gurdwara Reform Movement aimed at purifying Sikh religious institutions and asserting Sikh identity and self-governance. The SGPC is the elected body that manages Gurdwaras in Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, and Chandigarh under the Sikh Gurdwaras Act, 1925.

40. What was/were the formative influence(s) on the philosophy of Mahatma

What was/were the formative influence(s) on the philosophy of Mahatma Gandhi?

  • Gandhi was influenced by the 18th century Pranami sect that advocated the unity of faiths.
  • Gandhi was influenced by the theosophists.
  • Gandhi was an admirer of the writings of Romantics like Wordsworth.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
1 only
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-1 – 2017
Statements 1 and 2 are correct regarding the formative influences on Mahatma Gandhi’s philosophy. Statement 1 is correct; Gandhi was influenced by the Pranami sect, which his mother followed. This sect advocated the unity of faiths and tolerance, which aligned with Gandhi’s later views on religious harmony. Statement 2 is correct; Gandhi was influenced by the Theosophical Society and its literature, particularly during his time in London and South Africa. Theosophy’s emphasis on universal brotherhood, comparative religion, and interest in ancient Indian scriptures (like the Bhagavad Gita, which he first read through Theosophists) had a formative impact on him. Statement 3 is less certain as a *primary formative* influence compared to others like Ruskin, Tolstoy, Thoreau, and the Bhagavad Gita. While Gandhi was widely read and appreciated literature, Wordsworth is not typically listed among the core figures who shaped his fundamental philosophical tenets like Satyagraha or his economic/social ideas derived from Ruskin’s ‘Unto This Last’. Given the options, 1 and 2 are demonstrably formative influences.
– Gandhi was influenced by the Pranami sect’s concept of unity of faiths.
– Theosophy played a role in shaping his early interest in comparative religion and Indian scriptures.
– Other major influences include Ruskin, Tolstoy, Thoreau, and the Bhagavad Gita.
Gandhi synthesized influences from various sources, including Indian religious traditions, Western philosophy and literature, and his own experiences, to develop his unique philosophy of Satyagraha, non-violence, and Swaraj.