UPSC CDS-1 Archives

21. Which of the following are the core functions of the United Nations mu

Which of the following are the core functions of the United Nations multidimensional peacekeeping operations?

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1. Stabilization
2. Peace consolidation
3. To extend support to a losing State in a war

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1, 2 and 3

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

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UPSC CDS-1 – 2019

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UN multidimensional peacekeeping operations are complex missions deployed in post-conflict situations. Their core functions extend beyond traditional military tasks (like monitoring ceasefires) to include civilian components aimed at building sustainable peace. Stabilization (1) is a key goal, involving creating a secure environment. Peace consolidation (2) involves supporting political processes, reforming security institutions, assisting in disarmament and demobilization, promoting human rights, and restoring the rule of law – all aimed at building durable peace. Option 3, supporting a losing state in a war, is not a function of UN peacekeeping. Peacekeeping operations are based on principles of impartiality and consent of the main parties to the conflict and do not intervene militarily to support one side against another.

– UN peacekeeping aims to stabilize conflict zones and consolidate peace.
– Impartiality and non-interference in the conflict are core principles; supporting a belligerent party is not a function.

Multidimensional peacekeeping operations often involve military, police, and civilian personnel working together on a range of tasks, including electoral support, human rights monitoring, humanitarian assistance coordination, and economic recovery facilitation.

22. Which of the following statements about Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, as

Which of the following statements about Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, as a member of the Constitution of India, are correct?

1. He favoured the role of the Supreme Court in taking important decisions related to the interpretation of the Constitution of India.
2. He felt that the Supreme Court had to draw the line between liberty and social control.
3. He believed in the dominance of the executive over the judiciary.
4. He favoured a dictatorial form of governance.

Select the correct answer using the code below.

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3

3 and 4

1, 2 and 4

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Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar was a distinguished lawyer and a prominent member of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution. He strongly advocated for an independent and powerful judiciary, recognizing the crucial role of the Supreme Court in upholding the Constitution and protecting fundamental rights. Statement 1 is correct as he emphasized the Supreme Court’s role in interpreting the Constitution. Statement 2 is also correct; he understood that the judiciary, particularly the Supreme Court, would need to balance individual liberties with the requirements of social control and public interest. Statements 3 and 4 are incorrect; he was a champion of constitutional democracy and an independent judiciary, not executive dominance or dictatorial governance.

– Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar was a strong proponent of judicial independence and the Supreme Court’s role.
– He believed the judiciary was essential for constitutional interpretation and balancing rights with social needs.

Along with other legal luminaries like B. R. Ambedkar and B. N. Rau, Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar played a crucial role in shaping the judicial framework and fundamental rights provisions of the Indian Constitution.

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23. Which one of the following issues was included in the Indo-US Nuclear

Which one of the following issues was included in the Indo-US Nuclear Agreement of 2007?

India has 'advance right to reprocess' US-origin safeguarded spent fuel.

India did not have the right to build a strategic fuel reserve with the help of the other supplier countries.

India should not test a nuclear device.

The US will impede the growth of India's nuclear weapons programme.

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The Indo-US Nuclear Agreement of 2007 (often referred to as the 123 Agreement) was a landmark civilian nuclear cooperation pact. A key point included in the agreement from India’s perspective was the right to reprocess US-origin safeguarded spent fuel. Specifically, Article VI(iii) of the agreement stated that India would have “advance consent” for the reprocessing of U.S.-origin spent fuel in a new, dedicated, safeguarded facility. This was a significant concession as standard U.S. non-proliferation policy generally opposed reprocessing by non-nuclear-weapon states. Option A correctly identifies this specific provision. Option C is a condition derived from the Hyde Act and the NSG waiver necessary for the agreement, rather than a specific clause *within* the text of the 123 Agreement itself in the way A is.

– The agreement granted India “advance consent” rights to reprocess U.S.-origin spent nuclear fuel.
– This right was subject to establishing a dedicated, safeguarded reprocessing facility.

Other important aspects of the agreement included assured fuel supply for India’s civilian reactors, the separation of India’s civilian and military nuclear facilities, and placing the civilian facilities under International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards. The agreement required India to not test a nuclear device.

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24. Which one of the following developments took place because of the Kans

Which one of the following developments took place because of the Kansas-Nebraska Act of 1854?

The Missouri Compromise was repealed and people of Kansas and Nebraska were allowed to determine whether they should own slaves or not.

The Act did not permit the territories the right to vote over the question of slavery.

The voice of the majority in regard to the issue of slavery was muzzled.

The Federal Government had the sole authority to decide on slavery.

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The Kansas-Nebraska Act of 1854 was a significant event leading up to the American Civil War. It proposed creating two new territories, Kansas and Nebraska. To determine the issue of slavery in these territories, the Act repealed the Missouri Compromise of 1820, which had prohibited slavery in the Louisiana Purchase territory north of 36°30′ latitude. Instead, the Act introduced the principle of ‘popular sovereignty’, allowing the settlers in these territories to decide for themselves through a vote whether to allow slavery or not. Option A accurately describes this key development: the repeal of the Missouri Compromise and the application of popular sovereignty.

– The Kansas-Nebraska Act repealed the Missouri Compromise of 1820.
– It introduced the principle of popular sovereignty, allowing residents of the territories to decide on slavery.

The application of popular sovereignty in Kansas led to violent conflict between pro-slavery and anti-slavery settlers, earning the territory the nickname “Bleeding Kansas”. The Act further heightened tensions between the North and the South over the expansion of slavery.

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25. Which Arab scientist could be given the credit of christening the math

Which Arab scientist could be given the credit of christening the mathematical discipline of algorithm?

Al-Khwarizmi

Ibn al-Haytham

Ibn Rushd

Ibn Sina

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The word “algorithm” is derived from the Latinized name of the 9th-century Persian mathematician, astronomer, and geographer Muhammad ibn Musa al-Khwarizmi (c. 780–850 AD). His book on Hindu-Arabic numerals, translated into Latin in the 12th century, was titled “Algorismi de numero Indorum” (Algorismi on the Hindu Art of Reckoning). “Algorismi” refers to al-Khwarizmi, and the term “algorithm” evolved from his name in connection with the rules he provided for arithmetic using decimal numbers.

– The term “algorithm” originates from the name of the mathematician al-Khwarizmi.
– His work on arithmetic using Hindu-Arabic numerals was influential in Europe.

– Ibn al-Haytham (Alhazen) was a prominent Arab physicist and mathematician known for his contributions to optics.
– Ibn Rushd (Averroes) was an Andalusian polymath known for his work in philosophy and medicine.
– Ibn Sina (Avicenna) was a Persian polymath known for his work in medicine and philosophy.

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26. Which one of the following canons of taxation was not advocated by Ada

Which one of the following canons of taxation was not advocated by Adam Smith?

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Canon of equality

Canon of certainty

Canon of convenience

Canon of fiscal adequacy

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Adam Smith, in his seminal work ‘The Wealth of Nations’ (1776), laid down four main canons (or principles) of taxation. These were: 1. Canon of Equality (Ability to Pay), 2. Canon of Certainty, 3. Canon of Convenience, and 4. Canon of Economy. The concept of ‘Fiscal Adequacy’, which refers to the tax system being able to generate sufficient revenue to meet government expenditure, is an important principle of public finance but was not explicitly listed as one of the canons of taxation *by Adam Smith* in the same manner as the other four.

– Adam Smith’s four canons of taxation are Equality, Certainty, Convenience, and Economy.
– Fiscal adequacy is a principle of taxation related to revenue generation, but not one of Smith’s original four canons.

– Canon of Equality: Taxes should be proportionate to the respective abilities of the contributors.
– Canon of Certainty: The tax amount, time, and manner of payment should be clear and certain to the taxpayer.
– Canon of Convenience: Taxes should be levied at a time or in a manner most convenient for the contributor.
– Canon of Economy: The cost of collecting the tax should be as low as possible compared to the revenue generated.

27. According to John Maynard Keynes, employment depends upon

According to John Maynard Keynes, employment depends upon

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aggregate demand

aggregate supply

effective demand

rate of interest

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According to John Maynard Keynes’s theory of employment (as presented in ‘The General Theory’), the level of employment is determined by the level of effective demand. Effective demand is the point where aggregate demand equals aggregate supply. In the Keynesian framework, unemployment (especially involuntary unemployment) arises when aggregate demand is insufficient to absorb the total potential output corresponding to full employment. Therefore, increasing aggregate demand is the key to increasing employment up to the point of full employment. While aggregate supply is also present, effective demand is the crucial factor determining the *actual* level of employment.

– Keynesian theory focuses on aggregate demand as the primary determinant of employment in the short run.
– Effective demand is the specific level of aggregate demand that determines the level of employment.
– Unemployment arises from a deficiency of effective demand.

– Aggregate demand is the total demand for goods and services in an economy.
– Aggregate supply is the total supply of goods and services in an economy.
– The rate of interest influences investment, which is a component of aggregate demand, but effective demand is the direct determinant of employment in Keynes’s framework.

28. Which one of the following hypotheses postulates that individual’s con

Which one of the following hypotheses postulates that individual’s consumption in any time period depends upon resources available to the individual, rate of return on his capital and age of the individual?

Absolute Income Hypothesis

Relative Income Hypothesis

Life Cycle Hypothesis

Permanent Income Hypothesis

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The Life Cycle Hypothesis (LCH), developed by Franco Modigliani, postulates that individuals plan their consumption and saving over their entire lifetime. Consumption in any given period is determined by the resources available over their lifetime, which include current income, wealth (accumulated savings/capital), expected future income, and the rate of return on capital. The individual’s age is crucial because it determines their position in the life cycle (e.g., earning years, retirement years) and thus influences saving and consumption patterns based on their lifetime resources.

– Consumption depends on lifetime resources.
– Factors include current income, wealth, future income expectations, rate of return, and age.
– This is the core idea of the Life Cycle Hypothesis.

– Absolute Income Hypothesis (Keynes): Consumption depends solely on current absolute income.
– Relative Income Hypothesis (Duesenberry): Consumption depends on current income relative to the income of others (demonstration effect) or relative to peak past income (ratchet effect).
– Permanent Income Hypothesis (Friedman): Consumption depends on permanent income, which is the expected average long-term income.

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29. Consider the following statements: Inflation in India continued to b

Consider the following statements:

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Inflation in India continued to be moderate during 2017-18.
There was significant reduction in food inflation, particularly pulses and vegetables during the period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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According to the Economic Survey 2017-18 and RBI reports for the period, inflation in India remained moderate, generally staying below the RBI’s target of 4% for much of the year. There was indeed a significant reduction in food inflation during this period compared to previous years, especially for pulses and vegetables, although there were some price spikes in vegetables towards the end of the year. Both statements reflect the general trend observed in the Indian economy during the financial year 2017-18.

– Inflation was generally moderate in India during 2017-18.
– Food inflation, particularly for pulses and vegetables, saw a notable reduction from earlier high levels.

– The Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation remained relatively low during most of 2017-18.
– This period was marked by stable macroeconomic conditions regarding inflation compared to the preceding few years.

30. A market situation when many firms sell similar but not identical prod

A market situation when many firms sell similar but not identical products is termed as

perfect competition

imperfect competition

monopolistic competition

oligopoly

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Monopolistic competition is a market structure characterized by a large number of firms selling products that are similar but differentiated. Product differentiation allows firms some degree of market power, but the large number of competitors limits this power. This description directly matches the definition provided in the question.

– Many firms.
– Products are similar but not identical (differentiated).
– Characterizes monopolistic competition.

– Perfect competition: Many firms, identical products.
– Oligopoly: Few firms, products can be identical or differentiated.
– Imperfect competition: A general term encompassing market structures where perfect competition does not hold, including monopolistic competition, oligopoly, and monopoly.

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