UPSC CDS-1 Archives

1. Which one of the following indices is now used by the Reserve Bank of

Which one of the following indices is now used by the Reserve Bank of India to measure the rate of Inflation in India?

NASDAQ Index

BSE Index

Consumer Price Index

Wholesale Price Index

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UPSC CDS-1 – 2017

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The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) now uses the Consumer Price Index (CPI) to measure the rate of inflation in India for monetary policy purposes. Specifically, the CPI Combined (CPI-C) is the key measure.

Historically, the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) was the primary measure of inflation in India. However, WPI captures price changes at the wholesale level and does not reflect the prices paid by consumers. Following recommendations by committees and a shift in focus towards consumer inflation globally, the RBI officially adopted CPI-Combined as its main inflation target measure around 2014-2015.

NASDAQ and BSE Index (Sensex) are stock market indices, which measure the performance of stock markets, not inflation. CPI measures the average change over time in the prices paid by urban consumers for a market basket of consumer goods and services. WPI measures the average change in the price of commodities at the wholesale level.

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2. Which one of the following intellectual property rights is protected w

Which one of the following intellectual property rights is protected without making any registration?

Patent

Industrial design

Trademark

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UPSC CDS-1 – 2017

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Copyright is an intellectual property right that is protected without making any registration. Protection for copyrighted works (such as literary, dramatic, musical, and artistic works, and cinematograph films) arises automatically the moment the work is created and fixed in a tangible medium.

While registration of copyright is possible and provides certain advantages (like serving as prima facie evidence in court), it is not mandatory for obtaining copyright protection. The Berne Convention, to which India is a signatory, establishes that copyright protection is automatic and does not require formal registration.

Other intellectual property rights listed typically require formal registration for protection. A patent protects inventions and requires application and examination by a patent office. An industrial design protects the visual appearance of a product and requires registration. While unregistered trademarks can gain some protection through common law rights based on use, statutory protection (which is stronger and easier to enforce) requires registration.

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3. Which one of the following statements relating to protection against a

Which one of the following statements relating to protection against arrest and detention of individuals under Article 22 is not correct?

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No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed of the grounds for such arrest.

No person shall be denied the right to consult, and be defended by, a legal practitioner of his/her choice.

Every person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of one week of such arrest.

The right to protection against arrest is not available to a person in jail pursuant to a judicial order.

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Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC CDS-1 – 2017

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The statement that is not correct is C. Article 22(2) of the Constitution of India states that every person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of twenty-four hours of such arrest, excluding the time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the Magistrate’s court. The period is 24 hours, not one week.

Article 22 grants protection against arrest and detention in certain cases. It provides two main rights to a person arrested under ordinary law:
1. The right to be informed of the grounds for arrest (Article 22(1)).
2. The right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of his choice (Article 22(1)).
3. The right to be produced before a Magistrate within 24 hours of arrest (excluding journey time) (Article 22(2)).
4. The right not to be detained in custody beyond 24 hours without the authority of a Magistrate (Article 22(2)).

The rights under Article 22(1) and (2) are not available to (a) an enemy alien and (b) a person arrested or detained under any law providing for preventive detention. Option D is correct because once a person is in jail pursuant to a judicial order (e.g., after being produced before a magistrate and remanded to judicial custody or after conviction), the rights related to initial arrest and prompt production under Article 22(1) and (2) have already been fulfilled or do not apply in the context of continued detention based on a judicial directive.

4. Which one of the following statements regarding freedom to manage reli

Which one of the following statements regarding freedom to manage religious affairs as per the Constitution of India is not correct?

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Every religious denomination shall have the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion except some minor communities.

Every religion or any section thereof shall have the right to own and acquire movable and immovable property.

Every religious community has the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.

Every community has the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion.

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UPSC CDS-1 – 2017

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The statement that is not correct is A. Article 26 of the Constitution of India grants religious denominations the right to manage their own affairs in matters of religion. This right applies to ‘every religious denomination or any section thereof’, without any exception for ‘some minor communities’.

Article 26, titled “Freedom to manage religious affairs”, provides four rights to every religious denomination:
(a) to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes;
(b) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;
(c) to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and
(d) to administer such property in accordance with law.

These rights are subject to public order, morality, and health. The term ‘religious denomination’ has been interpreted by courts and includes bodies having a common faith, a common organisation, and a distinct name. There is no distinction made in the Article between major or minor religious communities in terms of the fundamental rights granted under it.

5. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Right to Ed

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Right to Education in India?

1. Free and compulsory education should be provided to all children of the age of six to fourteen years.
2. The imperative of the provision of the Right to Education Act, 2009 is that schools must have qualified teachers and basic infrastructure.
3. There should be quality education without any discrimination on the ground of economic, social and cultural background.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

3 only

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UPSC CDS-1 – 2017

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All three statements regarding the Right to Education in India are correct.

Article 21A of the Constitution guarantees the right to free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 years. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, operationalises this fundamental right.

Statement 1 accurately reflects the mandate of Article 21A and the RTE Act. Statement 2 is correct as the RTE Act prescribes specific norms and standards for schools, including infrastructure, teacher qualifications, and pupil-teacher ratios, which are essential for ensuring quality education. Statement 3 is also correct; a primary objective of the RTE Act and the underlying constitutional principle is to provide equitable access to quality education for all children, irrespective of their economic, social, or cultural background, thereby eliminating discrimination in education.

6. Which of the following statements regarding Article 21 of the Constitu

Which of the following statements regarding Article 21 of the Constitution of India is/are correct?

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1. Article 21 is violated when the under-trial prisoners are detained in judicial custody for an indefinite period.
2. Right to life is one of the basic human rights and not even the State has the authority to violate that right.
3. Under Article 21, the right of a woman to make reproductive choices is not a dimension of personal liberty.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 only

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-1 – 2017

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Statements 1 and 2 regarding Article 21 of the Constitution of India are correct.

Article 21 guarantees the fundamental right to Protection of Life and Personal Liberty. The Supreme Court of India has significantly expanded the scope of Article 21 through various judgments.

Statement 1 is correct. The Supreme Court has held that prolonged detention of under-trial prisoners violates their right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 (e.g., in Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar). Statement 2 is correct. Right to life is universally recognized as a basic human right, and Article 21 protects this right against arbitrary state action. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Supreme Court has recognized the right of a woman to make reproductive choices (e.g., regarding abortion) as an important dimension of personal liberty under Article 21.

7. Which of the following statements relating to the powers of the Presid

Which of the following statements relating to the powers of the President of India is/are correct?

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1. The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President.
2. The executive power shall be exercised by the President only through officers subordinate to him.
3. The supreme command of the defence forces of the Union shall be vested in the President.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

3 only

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Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC CDS-1 – 2017

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Statements 1 and 3 relating to the powers of the President of India are correct.

Article 53(1) of the Constitution states that the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President. Article 53(2) states that the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union shall be vested in the President.

Statement 1 is directly from Article 53(1). Statement 3 is directly from Article 53(2). Statement 2 says the executive power shall be exercised *only* through officers subordinate to him. Article 53(1) states it “shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him”. Thus, the President is not restricted to acting *only* through subordinates, making statement 2 incorrect. While in practice, the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers (officers subordinate in a sense), the constitutional text of Article 53(1) does not use the word “only”.

8. Which country signed a Memorandum of Understanding with India for prom

Which country signed a Memorandum of Understanding with India for promoting the production of Pigeon peas/Tur and other pulses in July 2016?

South Africa

Syria

Egypt

Mozambique

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Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC CDS-1 – 2017

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Mozambique signed a Memorandum of Understanding with India for promoting the production of Pigeon peas/Tur and other pulses in July 2016.

In July 2016, India and Mozambique signed an MoU during Prime Minister Modi’s visit to the African nation.

The MoU aimed at increasing the production of pulses, especially Pigeon peas (Tur), in Mozambique and securing long-term supply to India, which faces deficits in pulse production. This was part of India’s strategy to ensure food security by sourcing pulses from other countries.

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9. BRICS Summit, 2016 was held in

BRICS Summit, 2016 was held in

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Brazil

China

India

South Africa

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Answer is Wrong!

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The BRICS Summit in 2016 was held in India.

The 8th BRICS Summit was hosted by India in 2016.

The 8th BRICS Summit took place in Goa, India, on 15–16 October 2016. The theme of the Summit was “Building Responsive, Inclusive and Collective Solutions.”

10. Which of the following statements are correct about ‘Saakshar Bharat’

Which of the following statements are correct about ‘Saakshar Bharat’ scheme?

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1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme which was launched during the Eleventh Five-Year Plan.
2. The scheme applies to women in particular and disadvantaged groups in general.
3. The scheme applies to persons above the age of 10 years.
4. The scheme is anchored with Panchayati Raj Institutions and Local Self-Government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1, 2 and 3

2, 3 and 4

1, 2 and 4

1, 3 and 4

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-1 – 2017

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Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct about the ‘Saakshar Bharat’ scheme.

The Saakshar Bharat scheme was indeed a Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched in 2009, which falls within the Eleventh Five-Year Plan (2007-2012). It specifically targeted female literacy and disadvantaged groups to reduce the gender gap in literacy and cover other marginalized sections. The implementation mechanism heavily relied on Panchayati Raj Institutions and Local Self-Governments.

The target age group for the Saakshar Bharat scheme is 15 years and above, not 10 years. The scheme primarily aimed at imparting functional literacy to non-literates in this age group, particularly focusing on women in rural areas and socially disadvantaged groups. Statement 3 is therefore incorrect.