Which one among the following was *not* correct about Permanent Settle

Which one among the following was *not* correct about Permanent Settlement in India ?

It was introduced by Lord Cornwallis
It was implemented in Bengal and Bihar
Zamindars were only revenue collectors but not the owners of the land
The cultivators were reduced to the status of tenants
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2010
Statement C is not correct about the Permanent Settlement. Under the Permanent Settlement (introduced in 1793), Zamindars were recognized as the proprietors (owners) of the land in their zamindaris, not merely as revenue collectors. They were required to pay a fixed amount of revenue to the British East India Company by a specific date, failing which their zamindari could be auctioned off. This made the Zamindars landowners with hereditary rights, unlike the previous system where they were essentially intermediaries collecting revenue on behalf of the state.
– Introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793 in Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa.
– Made Zamindars the hereditary owners of the land.
– Revenue demand was fixed permanently for the Zamindars.
– Cultivators were reduced to the status of tenants, often without security of tenure.
– Aimed to ensure a stable revenue income for the Company and create a loyal class of landlords.
The system created a class of absentee landlords and often led to the oppression of peasants, as Zamindars extracted high rents from their tenants to meet the fixed revenue demand.