The Parliamentary Act Archives

61. Which new provision has been added to the Scheduled Castes and Schedul

Which new provision has been added to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 vide its 2018 amendment ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Section 14A” option2=”Section 15″ option3=”Section 15A” option4=”Section 18A” correct=”option4″]

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The correct answer is D) Section 18A.

The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Amendment Act, 2018 introduced several new provisions to the Act. Among the options provided, Section 18A was inserted by the 2018 amendment. Section 18A essentially nullified the requirement of a preliminary enquiry and approval before arresting an accused person under the Act, which had been introduced by the Supreme Court in a previous judgment.

Other new sections inserted by the 2018 amendment include Section 14A (Appeals) and Section 15A (Rights of victims, witnesses and informants). Section 15 existed in the original Act. While 14A and 15A are also new provisions from the 2018 amendment, Section 18A was the most debated and significant change in response to a Supreme Court ruling, making it a likely focus of such a question.

62. Which of the following Sections of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1

Which of the following Sections of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 makes provision regarding Appeals and Revision to the High Court ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Section 25″ option2=”Section 27″ option3=”Section 32″ option4=”Section 34″ correct=”option2″]

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The correct answer is Section 27.

– Section 27 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 provides for Appeals and Revision to the High Court.
– It states that subject to the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, any appeal or revision against the order of a Special Judge shall lie to the High Court.

– The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 creates a special category of courts presided over by Special Judges to try offences under the Act.
– The provisions for appeal and revision ensure that the proceedings and orders of these Special Courts are subject to scrutiny by the High Court, maintaining the judicial hierarchy and allowing for correction of errors.
– Section 25 relates to the Act not affecting other laws.
– Section 32 is related to the repeal and saving provisions (of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1947 and the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 1952).
– Section 34 deals with the statement of objects and reasons (which is not part of the Act itself but often accompanies it).

63. To prosecute a public servant, prior sanction from the Central or Stat

To prosecute a public servant, prior sanction from the Central or State Government is necessary. The provision for previous sanction necessary for prosecution of public servant for offences punishable under Sections 7, 11, 13 and 15 of the Prevention of Corruption Act is mentioned under which one of the following Sections of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Section 19″ option2=”Section 18A” option3=”Section 20″ option4=”Section 22″ correct=”option1″]

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The correct answer is Section 19.

– Section 19 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 specifically deals with the necessity of obtaining prior sanction from the Central Government or the State Government, as the case may be, before prosecuting a public servant for offences punishable under Sections 7, 11, 13 and 15 of the Act.
– This provision is a safeguard for public servants against vexatious prosecution, ensuring that the decision to prosecute is taken by a competent authority after due consideration.

– Section 7 pertains to the offence of taking gratification other than legal remuneration by a public servant in respect of an official act.
– Section 11 pertains to the offence committed by a public servant who obtains any valuable thing, without consideration, from a person concerned in any proceeding or business transacted by him.
– Section 13 pertains to the offence of criminal misconduct by a public servant.
– Section 15 pertains to the offence of attempt to commit offences referred to in Section 13(1)(c) and (d).
– Section 18A deals with the power to appoint special counsel.
– Section 20 deals with the presumption where a public servant accepts illegal gratification.
– Section 22 deals with the procedure and powers of special judges.

64. Where the property seized under Section 102 of the Code of Criminal Pr

Where the property seized under Section 102 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is subject to speedy and natural decay and if the person entitled to the possession of such property is unknown or absent, the property may forthwith be sold by auction under the orders of the Superintendent of Police, if the value of such property is :

[amp_mcq option1=”more than ₹ 500.” option2=”less than ₹ 500.” option3=”less than ₹ 1,000.” option4=”more than ₹ 1,000.” correct=”option2″]

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Where the property seized under Section 102 of the CrPC is subject to speedy and natural decay and its owner is unknown or absent, it may be sold by auction under the orders of the Superintendent of Police if the value of such property is less than ₹ 500.

– Section 102(3) of CrPC provides for the immediate sale of seized property that is subject to speedy and natural decay or where the owner is unknown/absent, under certain conditions.
– For property with a value less than five hundred rupees, the sale by auction can be ordered by a police officer not below the rank of Superintendent of Police.

– For seized property of a value exceeding ₹500, the matter of disposal typically requires an order from a Magistrate under Section 457 of CrPC if the person entitled to possession is unknown or absent. However, Section 102(3) provides a specific exception for low-value perishable property to facilitate quicker disposal and prevent loss.

65. Who amongst the following can issue a warrant to search the place susp

Who amongst the following can issue a warrant to search the place suspected to contain stolen property, forged document, etc. ?

District Magistrate
Sub-Divisional Magistrate
Magistrate of the First Class

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1, 2 and 3″ option4=”1 and 3 only” correct=”option3″]

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All three listed authorities – District Magistrate, Sub-Divisional Magistrate, and Magistrate of the First Class – are empowered to issue a warrant to search a place suspected to contain stolen property, forged documents, etc.

– Section 94(1) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 explicitly states that a District Magistrate, Sub-Divisional Magistrate, or a Magistrate of the first class may issue such a warrant.

– Section 94 of CrPC deals with searches for specific items like stolen property, forged documents, counterfeit currency, etc., in suspected places. The warrant authorises a police officer, not below the rank of a constable, to enter and search the place, and seize any such items found.

66. CISF is inducted in an undertaking after the approval of MHA and :

CISF is inducted in an undertaking after the approval of MHA and :

[amp_mcq option1=”orders of Director General.” option2=”recruitment of constables.” option3=”completion of pre-induction formalities and payment of security deposit.” option4=”completion of fresh training of all those CISF personnel who are going to be inducted.” correct=”option3″]

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CISF is inducted in an undertaking after the approval of MHA and completion of pre-induction formalities and payment of security deposit.

The induction of CISF into a new establishment is a formal process that requires approval from the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). Beyond MHA approval, practical steps like site surveys, assessment of security requirements, establishment of necessary infrastructure, completion of administrative formalities, and often, payment of a security deposit by the requesting entity are required before deployment.

Options A, B, and D relate to internal operational matters of CISF (DG orders, recruitment, training) rather than the specific external requirements for securing a new undertaking. The pre-induction formalities and financial arrangements are crucial steps following government approval for external deployment.

67. In which of the following years were amendments in the CISF Act brough

In which of the following years were amendments in the CISF Act brought in ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1983, 1989, 1999 and 2011″ option2=”1983, 1991, 2001 and 2009″ option3=”1983, 1989, 1999 and 2009″ option4=”1983, 1989, 2001 and 2011″ correct=”option3″]

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The correct answer is C) 1983, 1989, 1999 and 2009. These are significant years when the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968, underwent amendments that broadened its scope and powers, particularly allowing deployment in joint venture and private sector undertakings (1999) and further refining its role and structure (1983, 1989, 2009).

– The CISF Act, 1968, established the force.
– Key amendments were made in 1983 (e.g., relating to members’ liability), 1989 (e.g., concerning dependents’ benefits), 1999 (allowing deployment in private/joint venture sectors on cost reimbursement basis), and 2009 (further expanding scope and powers).
– Another significant amendment occurred in 2001, making CISF mandatory for airport security.

The amendments reflect the evolving security landscape in India and the expanding role of CISF from primarily protecting Public Sector Undertakings to becoming a multi-faceted security agency involved in airport security, VIP security, consultancy, and security for private sector establishments critical to the economy. While the 2001 amendment was also very important, Option C lists a set of years that are all correct amendment years, whereas Option D contains a likely incorrect year (2011).

68. As per the CISF Act, 1968, which of the following is not correct as fa

As per the CISF Act, 1968, which of the following is not correct as far as the procedure to be followed after arrest by CISF is concerned ?

[amp_mcq option1=”To hand over the arrested person to the nearest police station” option2=”To hand over the arrested person to the management of the undertaking” option3=”To hand over the arrested person to a police officer” option4=”To prepare a report of the circumstances occasioning the arrest” correct=”option2″]

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The correct answer is B) To hand over the arrested person to the management of the undertaking. As per the CISF Act, 1968 and general legal procedures, CISF personnel, after making an arrest, must hand over the arrested person to the nearest police station or a police officer, not to the management of the undertaking they are protecting, as the management does not have the legal authority to handle arrested persons in accordance with criminal procedure law.

– Section 11 of the CISF Act, 1968 deals with the power to arrest without warrant.
– Section 12 mandates that any CISF officer making an arrest without a warrant shall without unnecessary delay make over the person so arrested to a police officer and failing such police officer, take such person to the nearest police station.
– Preparing a report detailing the circumstances of the arrest is also a necessary procedural step.

The CISF personnel derive their power of arrest from the CISF Act, read with the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC). Once an arrest is made, the due process involves handing the individual over to the appropriate law enforcement authority (the Police) for formal registration of case, investigation, and presentation before a magistrate, ensuring adherence to fundamental rights and legal procedures.

69. The Act to make daughters an equal co-heir with the sons was enacted i

The Act to make daughters an equal co-heir with the sons was enacted in :

[amp_mcq option1=”1955″ option2=”1956″ option3=”1961″ option4=”1975″ correct=”option2″]

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The Hindu Succession Act, enacted in 1956, was the primary law that codified the law relating to intestate succession among Hindus. While it did not initially make daughters equal co-heirs with sons in ancestral property (that came later with the 2005 amendment), it was the foundational act that defined inheritance rights within Hindu families, including some rights for daughters where none existed before in certain property types or scenarios. Given the options, 1956 is the year of the main succession act.

– The Hindu Succession Act, 1956, brought about significant changes in the law of succession among Hindus, including granting property rights to women.
– Before this act, succession was largely governed by various schools of Hindu law and local customs, often discriminatory against women.
– The Act of 1956 gave daughters inheritance rights in their father’s separate property (self-acquired property) equal to sons, but not equal co-parcenary rights in ancestral joint family property (which was limited to sons).
– The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, finally made daughters equal co-parceners with sons in ancestral property. However, the question asks about “The Act” implying the original legislation framework.

The Hindu Succession Act, 1956, applied to Hindus, Jains, Sikhs, and Buddhists. The 2005 amendment aimed to remove discriminatory provisions and ensure gender equality in property inheritance within Hindu joint families.

70. An enrolled member of CISF aggrieved by an order made under Section 8

An enrolled member of CISF aggrieved by an order made under Section 8 of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968, may file an appeal against the order within

[amp_mcq option1=”30 days.” option2=”one month.” option3=”60 days.” option4=”three months.” correct=”option1″]

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The correct answer is A) 30 days.

Section 9(1) of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968 provides for appeals against orders made under Section 8. It states that the appeal must be filed “within such time… as may be prescribed by the Central Government”. Rule 28(2) of the Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001, which are the prescribed rules, explicitly states that an appeal shall be preferred within a period of “thirty days” from the date of service of the order.

The specific time limit for filing an appeal is laid down in the rules framed under the Act. The CISF Rules, 2001 are the relevant rules. Rule 28(2) is precise, specifying “thirty days”. While one month might approximate thirty days, legal timelines are usually specified in days for clarity.