The Parliamentary Act Archives

31. Consider the following statements: As per Section 2(h) of the RTI Act,

Consider the following statements:
As per Section 2(h) of the RTI Act, 2005, “public authority” means any authority or body or institution of self-government established or constituted :

1. by any other law made by the Parliament.
2. by any other law made by State legislature.
3. by notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct answer is D) 1, 2 and 3.

As per Section 2(h) of the RTI Act, 2005, a “public authority” means any authority or body or institution of self-government established or constituted by or under the Constitution; by any other law made by Parliament; by any other law made by State Legislature; or by notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government, and includes any body owned, controlled or substantially financed; or non-Government organization substantially financed, directly or indirectly by funds provided by the appropriate Government.

Therefore, all three statements correctly describe ways in which a public authority can be established or constituted under the RTI Act, 2005.

Join Our Telegram Channel

32. Consider the following clauses pertaining to the exemption from disclo

Consider the following clauses pertaining to the exemption from disclosure of information under the RTI Act, 2005 :

Join Our Telegram Channel

1. Details in respect of the information, available to or held by it, reduced in an electronic form
2. Information which has been expressly forbidden to be published by any court of law or tribunal or the disclosure of which may constitute contempt of court
3. Provide reasons for its administrative or quasi-judicial decisions to the affected person
4. Information which would impede the process of investigation or apprehension or prosecution of offenders

Which of the above clauses are correct ?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 4 only

3 and 4 only

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2021-22

Download PDF Attempt Online

Section 8 and Section 9 of the RTI Act, 2005, list the specific grounds for exemption from disclosure of information.

Let’s analyze each clause:
1. Details in respect of the information, available to or held by it, reduced in an electronic form: This is information that public authorities are *obligated to proactively maintain and, if possible, disseminate* under Section 4(1)(a) and 4(4). It is not an exemption.
2. Information which has been expressly forbidden to be published by any court of law or tribunal or the disclosure of which may constitute contempt of court: This is a valid *exemption* under Section 8(1)(b).
3. Provide reasons for its administrative or quasi-judicial decisions to the affected person: This is an *obligation* of the public authority under Section 4(1)(d), not an exemption from providing other information.
4. Information which would impede the process of investigation or apprehension or prosecution of offenders: This is a valid *exemption* under Section 8(1)(h).

Clauses 2 and 4 represent grounds for exemption from disclosing information as listed in Section 8 of the RTI Act. Clauses 1 and 3 represent obligations of public authorities related to managing and proactively disseminating information under Section 4.

33. Which one of the following is not the obligation of public authority t

Which one of the following is not the obligation of public authority to publish the information on public domain?

Join Our Telegram Channel

The powers and duties of its officers and employees

The norms set by it for the discharge of its functions

The information received in confidence from foreign Government

The names, designations and other particulars of the Public Information Officer

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2021-22

Download PDF Attempt Online

Section 4(1)(b) of the RTI Act, 2005, lists the specific types of information that every public authority is obligated to publish proactively on its public domain.

Among the information required to be published under Section 4(1)(b) are: the powers and duties of its officers and employees (Section 4(1)(b)(ii)), the norms set by it for the discharge of its functions (Section 4(1)(b)(iv)), and the names, designations and other particulars of the Public Information Officers (Section 4(1)(b)(xvi)). Information received in confidence from a foreign Government, however, is typically considered exempt from disclosure under Section 8(1)(a) of the Act, as its disclosure could prejudicially affect relations with a foreign State. Therefore, it is not an obligation to proactively publish such information on the public domain.

The proactive disclosure requirement under Section 4 is intended to reduce the need for citizens to file individual RTI applications by making essential information readily available. Information that is exempt from disclosure under Section 8, such as information received in confidence from a foreign government, is excluded from this proactive disclosure requirement.

34. Consider the following clauses pertaining to the obligations of public

Consider the following clauses pertaining to the obligations of public authority under the RTI Act, 2005 :

Every public authority shall maintain all its records duly catalogued and indexed in a manner and the form which facilitates the Right to Information Act.
Every public authority shall publish the particulars of its organization, functions and duties.
Every information shall be disseminated widely and in such a manner which is easily accessible to the public.
All materials shall be disseminated taking into consideration the cost effectiveness, local language and the most effective method of communication in that local area and the information should be easily accessible.

Which of the above clauses is/are correct ?

1 only

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2021-22

Download PDF Attempt Online

Section 4 of the RTI Act, 2005, outlines the obligations of public authorities to maintain records and publish information proactively (suo motu disclosure).

Section 4(1)(a) mandates that every public authority shall maintain all its records duly catalogued and indexed in a manner and the form which facilitates the Right to Information under this Act. Section 4(1)(b) lists various particulars to be published, including the particulars of its organization, functions and duties, powers and duties of officers/employees, rules, regulations, etc. Section 4(1)(c) requires publishing the procedure followed in the decision making process. Section 4(1)(d) mandates providing reasons for administrative or quasi-judicial decisions. Section 4(2) states that every public authority shall make efforts to provide as much information suo motu to the public at regular intervals. Section 4(3) mandates disseminating information widely and in such form and manner which is easily accessible to the public. Section 4(4) states that all materials shall be disseminated taking into consideration the cost effectiveness, local language and the most effective method of communication in that local area and the information should be easily accessible, to the extent possible in electronic format with the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, available free or at such cost of the medium or the print cost price as may be prescribed.

All four clauses listed in the question accurately reflect obligations placed upon public authorities under Section 4 of the RTI Act, related to record management, proactive disclosure of information about the organization, wide dissemination, and consideration of accessibility, cost-effectiveness, and local language in dissemination.

Join Our Telegram Channel

35. What does Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act, 2005 pertain to ?

What does Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act, 2005 pertain to ?

Join Our Telegram Channel

Information that may cause a breach of privilege of Parliament

Information that may prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India

Personal information that can be withheld if it serves a public interest

Information relating to trade secrets and intellectual property

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2021-22

Download PDF Attempt Online

Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act, 2005, is one of the exemption clauses that allows public authorities to withhold certain information.

Section 8(1)(j) exempts from disclosure “information which relates to personal information the disclosure of which has no relationship to any public activity or interest, or which would cause unwarranted invasion of the privacy of the individual unless the Central Public Information Officer or the State Public Information Officer or the Appellate Authority, as the case may be, is satisfied that the larger public interest justifies the disclosure of such information: Provided that the information relating to the nominations filed by candidates for election to a Legislature or Parliament in which a candidate is required to declare his assets and liabilities may also be supplied to the citizen under this Act”. This clause specifically deals with personal information and the balancing act between personal privacy and larger public interest.

The other options relate to different exemption clauses: Section 8(1)(c) (privilege of Parliament/State Legislature), Section 8(1)(a) (sovereignty, integrity, security, foreign relations, etc.), and Section 8(1)(d) (trade secrets, intellectual property, etc.). Section 8(1)(j) is frequently invoked in requests seeking details about individuals’ service records, medical information, etc., which may be withheld unless a larger public interest is demonstrated.

36. Under the RTI Act, 2005, which one of the following is not an objectiv

Under the RTI Act, 2005, which one of the following is not an objective of the Act ?

Join Our Telegram Channel

Promoting transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority

Reducing corruption and promoting good governance

Empowering citizens and enhancing their participation in governance

Providing unlimited access to classified information

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2021-22

Download PDF Attempt Online

The Right to Information Act, 2005 aims to promote transparency and accountability in the working of public authorities.

The objectives of the RTI Act include promoting transparency and accountability, reducing corruption, promoting good governance, empowering citizens, and enhancing their participation in governance. However, the Act explicitly provides for exemptions from disclosure of certain information under Sections 8 and 9, including information that could prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India, security, strategic, scientific or economic interests, relations with foreign State, or lead to the incitement of an offence, or relates to trade secrets, or would cause an unwarranted invasion of the privacy of the individual, among others. Therefore, providing unlimited access to classified information is not an objective; rather, controlled access while protecting certain sensitive information is the intent.

The preamble to the RTI Act states its purpose as enabling citizens to secure access to information under the control of public authorities, in order to promote transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority. It acknowledges that informed citizenry is vital to the functioning of a democracy but also recognizes that the revelation of information may conflict with other public interests including the preservation of confidentiality of sensitive information.

37. Consider the following statements regarding the competent authority un

Consider the following statements regarding the competent authority under the RTI Act, 2005:
Competent authority means

Join Our Telegram Channel

the Chief Justice of India, in the case of the Supreme Court.
the Chief Justice of the High Court, in the case of a High Court.
the Administrator appointed under Article 239 of the Constitution of India.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2021-22

Download PDF Attempt Online

Section 2(e) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, defines “competent authority”. The definition lists several authorities depending on the body in question.

According to Section 2(e) of the RTI Act, 2005, the competent authority includes: (i) the Chief Justice of India, in the case of the Supreme Court; (ii) the Chief Justice of the High Court, in the case of a High Court; (iii) the Speaker, in the case of the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of a State or a Union territory having such Assembly and the Chairman, in the case of the Council of States or Legislative Council of a State; (iv) in the case of Union territories, the Administrator appointed under article 239 of the Constitution; (v) the person or such other body of persons as may be specified by the appropriate Government, by notification in the Official Gazette, for the purpose of this Act, in respect of all other public authorities.

All three statements provided in the question correctly list competent authorities as defined in Section 2(e) of the RTI Act, 2005, for the Supreme Court, High Courts, and Union Territories respectively.

38. Which one of the following statements is correct pertaining to power g

Which one of the following statements is correct pertaining to power given to police under the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022?

It empowers the police to obtain physical and biological samples of only convicts of crime.

It empowers the police to obtain physical and biological samples of only accused of crime.

It empowers the police to obtain physical and biological samples of only suspected persons of crime.

It empowers the police to obtain physical and biological samples of convicts and those accused of crime.

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct option is D. The Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022 empowers the police to obtain physical and biological samples of convicts and those accused of crime.

– The Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022 replaced the Identification of Prisoners Act, 1920.
– The new Act significantly expands the scope of individuals whose measurements can be taken.
– It permits collection of “measurements” (which include finger-impressions, palm-print impressions, foot-print impressions, photographs, iris and retina scans, physical and biological samples and their analysis, behavioural attributes including signatures, handwriting or any other examination) from:
– Convicted persons.
– Persons arrested for any offence.
– Persons ordered by a Magistrate to give measurements.
– Persons in preventive detention.
– Option A is incorrect because it is not limited to only convicts.
– Option B is incorrect because it is not limited to only accused persons.
– Option C is incorrect as “suspected persons” is too broad; the Act specifies categories like arrested persons and those ordered by a Magistrate.
– Option D correctly identifies that the Act applies to both convicts and those accused of crime (persons arrested for any offence fall under the category of accused).

The Act aims to enhance the use of modern techniques for criminal investigation by allowing for the collection and storage of a wider range of identifying data. It also provides for the digital storage of these records for up to 75 years.

Join Our Telegram Channel

39. Under which one among the following Sections of the Right to Informati

Under which one among the following Sections of the Right to Information Act, 2005, is information pertaining to violation of human rights not exempted from disclosure by intelligence and security organizations established by the government?

Section 18

Section 20

Section 24

Section 26

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2024

Download PDF Attempt Online

Section 24 of the Right to Information Act, 2005 exempts certain intelligence and security organizations specified in the Second Schedule from the purview of the Act. However, the proviso to Section 24(1) explicitly states that information pertaining to allegations of corruption and human rights violations shall not be excluded from the scope of the Act, even in the case of these organizations.

The question focuses on the exemptions provided to intelligence and security organizations under the RTI Act and the conditions under which such exemptions do not apply, particularly concerning human rights violations.

– Section 18 of the RTI Act deals with the powers and functions of the Central Information Commission and State Information Commissions.
– Section 20 deals with penalties for non-compliance with the Act.
– Section 26 outlines the appropriate government’s duty to promote the development and organisation of training programmes and provide necessary machinery to enable people to exercise the right to information.

Join Our Telegram Channel

40. Consider the following statements relating to identification of arrest

Consider the following statements relating to identification of arrested person under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 :

1. An arrested person can be directed to subject himself to identification in the manner prescribed by the court.
2. If the person identifying the arrested is mentally or physically disabled, the identification process must be videographed in all cases.
3. The supervision of a Magistrate is not mandatory if the person identifying is mentally or physically disabled.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2024

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct answer is B.

Section 54A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, deals with the identification of arrested persons.
1. Section 54A(1) states that the Court having jurisdiction *may* direct the arrested person to subject himself to identification “in such manner as the Court may deem fit”. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
2. Section 54A(3) states that the identification proceedings under sub-section (2) *shall be videographed*. Sub-section (2) applies when the person identifying the arrested person is mentally or physically disabled. Therefore, if the identifier is disabled, the process must be videographed. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
3. Section 54A(2) explicitly states that if the person identifying is mentally or physically disabled, the identification process *shall take place under the supervision of a Judicial Magistrate*. Therefore, the supervision of a Magistrate is mandatory in this specific case, not optional. Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.

Section 54A was inserted into the CrPC to provide a legal basis for conducting test identification parades (TIPs) under judicial supervision, particularly in sensitive cases involving vulnerable identifiers. The videography requirement ensures transparency and reliability of the identification process when conducted with a disabled identifier.

Join Our Telegram Channel