The Parliamentary Act Archives

21. Consider the following statements : 1. The Second Schedule of the R

Consider the following statements :

1. The Second Schedule of the RTI Act, 2005 lists the intelligence and security organizations established by the Central Government that are exempted from the purview of the RTI Act, 2005.
2. All the Government organisations come under the purview of RTI Act, 2005.
3. all departmental information of Central and State Governments.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

1 only

2 only

3 only

1, 2 and 3

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024

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Only statement 1 is correct. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.

– Statement 1 is correct as the Second Schedule lists the specific intelligence and security organizations exempted from the Act’s purview.
– Statement 2 is incorrect. Not all government organizations come under the Act. Certain organizations (listed in the Second Schedule) are exempted, and also the Act defines ‘public authority’ which covers government bodies and substantially funded NGOs/bodies, but not necessarily *all* organizations related to the government in some way.
– Statement 3 is incorrect. The RTI Act provides for exemptions from disclosure of certain types of information under Sections 8 and 9, such as information affecting national security, international relations, commercial confidence, personal privacy, etc. Therefore, not *all* departmental information of Central and State Governments is accessible under the Act.

The RTI Act aims to promote transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority, but it balances this with the need to protect certain sensitive information and the operational capabilities of specific organizations.

22. How many schedules does the RTI Act, 2005 have ?

How many schedules does the RTI Act, 2005 have ?

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024

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The RTI Act, 2005 has 2 schedules.

– The First Schedule contains the form of oath or affirmation to be made by the Chief Information Commissioner, Information Commissioners, State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information Commissioners.
– The Second Schedule lists the intelligence and security organizations established by the Central Government which are exempted from the purview of the Act.

While certain organizations listed in the Second Schedule are exempted, information pertaining to allegations of corruption and human rights violations is not excluded, provided that such information is given only after the approval of the Central Information Commission.

23. The first Indian state to introduce the law on RTI was

The first Indian state to introduce the law on RTI was

Tamil Nadu

Uttar Pradesh

Maharashtra

Gujarat

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024

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The correct option is A as Tamil Nadu was the first Indian state to enact its own law on the Right to Information.

Before the Central RTI Act of 2005, several Indian states had passed their own laws on the Right to Information, reflecting growing demand for transparency and accountability.

The Tamil Nadu Right to Information Act was passed in 1996, making it the pioneering state in India to introduce a law granting its citizens the right to access information from public authorities. This was followed by other states like Goa (1997), Rajasthan (2000), Maharashtra (2002), Karnataka (2002), etc., before the central legislation unified and expanded the right nationwide in 2005.

24. Consider the following statements: An applicant making request for inf

Consider the following statements:
An applicant making request for information under RTI Act, 2005

shall give the reason why the information is sought for.
shall give his/her personal details.
shall not give any reason for requesting the information or any other personal details except those that may be necessary for contacting him.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

3 only

1, 2 and 3

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024

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The correct option is C because Section 6(2) of the RTI Act, 2005 explicitly states that an applicant is not required to give reasons for seeking information or provide personal details beyond what is necessary for contact.

A cornerstone of the RTI Act is that access to information is a right, and therefore, the applicant does not need to justify their request or reveal extensive personal information.

Section 6(2) is a vital safeguard against potential misuse or intimidation and ensures that the process of seeking information is not burdensome or intrusive for the applicant. The focus is on the right to information itself, not on the applicant’s motives or detailed identity. Only contact information is required to facilitate communication and delivery of the information.

25. Consider the following statements: Public Information Officer at the

Consider the following statements:

Public Information Officer at the administrative unit level will receive the applications under the RTI Act, 2005.
Assistant Public Information Officer at the sub-district, sub-divisional levels will receive the applications under the RTI Act, 2005.
Any officer of a public authority, who is available in the authority’s office when the application is made, will receive the applications under the RTI Act, 2005.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024

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The correct option is A because the RTI Act designates specific officers at administrative and sub-district levels to receive applications, while not allowing just *any* available officer to do so.

The RTI Act establishes a designated hierarchy of officers – Public Information Officers (PIOs) and Assistant Public Information Officers (APIOs) – for receiving and processing RTI applications.

Section 5(1) mandates every public authority to designate PIOs in all administrative units or offices. These are the primary officers for receiving applications. Section 5(2) mandates the designation of APIOs at the sub-divisional or sub-district levels, whose role is to receive applications and forward them to the concerned PIO. Statement 3 is incorrect as it implies any officer can receive applications, which is not specified in the Act; receiving is the designated function of PIOs and APIOs.

26. Consider the following statements: The RTI Act, 2005 stipulates that a

Consider the following statements:
The RTI Act, 2005 stipulates that a Public Authority should transfer an RTI application or a part thereof to another Public Authority if the application or a part of it pertains to information

held by another Public Authority.
which is more closely connected with the functions of another Public Authority.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024

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The correct option is C because Section 6(3) of the RTI Act, 2005 mandates the transfer of an RTI application if the information requested is held by another public authority or is more closely connected with the functions of another public authority.

Section 6(3) is a crucial provision that prevents applicants from being penalized for directing their request to the wrong public authority. It places the responsibility on the receiving authority to transfer the application to the appropriate one.

Section 6(3) requires the public authority receiving the application to transfer it to the appropriate public authority within five days and inform the applicant immediately. This ensures that the applicant’s request is directed to the entity that holds the information or is best suited to provide it. The two conditions mentioned in the question are precisely those specified in Section 6(3) for triggering the transfer mechanism.

27. Consider the following statements about an inquiry carried out by an I

Consider the following statements about an inquiry carried out by an Information Commission:

1. It may examine any record to which the RTI Act, 2005 applies.
2. No such record can be withheld from it (irrespective of any provision of any Act passed by the Parliament or the State legislature).
3. Information Commission has the powers of a civil court trying a suit under the code of civil procedure.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024

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The correct option is D as all three statements correctly describe the powers of the Information Commission during an inquiry under the RTI Act, 2005.

Section 18(3) and Section 18(4) of the RTI Act grant significant powers to the Central and State Information Commissions to conduct inquiries and access records held by public authorities, overriding restrictions in other laws.

Section 18(3) bestows upon the Information Commission the powers of a civil court in respect of matters such as summoning, requiring discovery and inspection, receiving evidence on affidavit, etc. Section 18(4) further strengthens this by giving the Commission the power to examine any record to which the Act applies, under the control of the public authority, and explicitly states that no such record may be withheld from it on any grounds, notwithstanding anything contained in any other Act of Parliament or State Legislature.

28. Consider the following statements : As per Section 2(i) of RTI Act, 20

Consider the following statements :
As per Section 2(i) of RTI Act, 2005, “record” includes

1. any microfilm, microfiche and facsimile copy of a document
2. any reproduction of image or images embodied in such microfilm
3. any other material produced by a computer or any other device

Which of the above statements are correct ?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024

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The correct option is D because all three statements accurately describe what constitutes a “record” as per Section 2(i) of the RTI Act, 2005.

Section 2(i) of the Right to Information Act, 2005 defines “record” very broadly to include various forms of stored information, not just traditional paper documents.

According to Section 2(i), “record” includes: (a) any document, manuscript and file; (b) any microfilm, microfiche and facsimile copy of a document; (c) any reproduction of image or images embodied in such microfilm; and (d) any other material produced by a computer or any other device. This broad definition ensures that information held in modern formats is also accessible under the Act.

29. Consider the following statements: RTI Act, 2005 is not applicable t

Consider the following statements:
RTI Act, 2005 is not applicable to

1. all non-Government organisations substantially financed by political parties.
2. all bodies owned, controlled or substantially financed by the appropriate Government.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither I nor 2

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024

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The correct answer is A) 1 only.

Statement 1: The RTI Act, 2005 applies to ‘public authorities’. Section 2(h) defines public authority. While it includes non-government organisations *substantially financed* by the appropriate Government, it does *not* include non-Government organisations substantially financed by political parties. Therefore, the RTI Act is generally *not* applicable to all non-Government organisations substantially financed by political parties. Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2: Section 2(h)(d)(i) includes any body owned, controlled or substantially financed, directly or indirectly, by funds provided by the appropriate Government within the definition of ‘public authority’. Therefore, the RTI Act *is* applicable to such bodies. Statement 2, which says the Act is *not* applicable, is incorrect.

The definition of ‘public authority’ is crucial in determining the scope of the RTI Act. While bodies substantially financed by the government are covered, private bodies or NGOs primarily funded by sources other than the government (like political parties, private donations etc.) are typically outside the direct purview of the Act, unless they fall under another category (e.g., established by law, performing a public function etc., though the latter has been subject to judicial interpretation).

30. Which one of the following sections of the RTI Act, 2005 deals with se

Which one of the following sections of the RTI Act, 2005 deals with severability ?

Section 9

Section 10

Section 11

Section 12

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024

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The correct answer is B) Section 10.

Section 10 of the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, deals with the concept of ‘severability’. It states that if a request for information contains information that is exempt from disclosure, access may be provided to that part of the record which does not contain such exempt information after the severance of the part containing the exempt information.

This section allows for partial disclosure of information when only a portion of the record is exempt, ensuring that non-exempt information is still made available. Section 9 deals with grounds for rejection of a request. Section 11 deals with third-party information. Section 12 deals with the constitution of the Central Information Commission.