131. Which one of the following statements is correct ?

Which one of the following statements is correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”The Director General of the Central Industrial Security Force may direct the members of his Force to provide technical consultancy services relating to security to an industrial establishment in the private sector, on a request received in this behalf from the Managing Director concerned.” option2=”The Director General of the Central Industrial Security Force may direct the members of his Force to provide technical consultancy services relating to security to an industrial establishment in the private sector only if such establishment is executing a government contract.” option3=”The Director General of the Central Industrial Security Force may allow the members of the Force to provide technical consultancy services relating to security to an industrial establishment in the private sector only in their individual capacities.” option4=”Technical consultancy services can be rendered by the Central Industrial Security Force only when it has idle capacity.” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017
The Central Industrial Security Force provides professional security consultancy services to various entities, including those in the private sector, upon request. The Director General is authorized to direct members of the Force to provide such services.
CISF offers security consultancy services to private sector establishments.
This is a specialized wing of CISF offering expertise in security audits, risk assessments, and designing security systems. It is offered to both public and private sector undertakings and is not limited to those executing government contracts (B), or performed in individual capacities (C), or solely when there is idle capacity (D is not the formal basis).

132. The office-bearers of a workers’ union are physically preventing a sec

The office-bearers of a workers’ union are physically preventing a section of the workers from entering the premises of the industrial establishment where they work to show solidarity with the union which had given a call for a strike. The argument is becoming increasingly heated with some of the office-bearers threatening to resort to violence. As an officer of the Central Industrial Security Force in-charge of the situation, which one of the following actions would you consider the best under the circumstances ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Call the Chief Security Officer to handle the situation” option2=”Fire in the air to disperse the crowd” option3=”Escort the workers who want to enter the premises to their workstations inside the premises” option4=”Arrest the office-bearers of the workers’ union” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017
In a situation where some workers are being prevented from entering premises and violence is threatened, the best immediate action for a CISF officer is to facilitate the entry of those who wish to work. Escorting them demonstrates authority, protects the willing workers’ right to access their workplace, and asserts control over the situation without immediate use of force.
Ensuring lawful access to the workplace while maintaining order is a priority for security forces during labor disputes.
Calling the CSO (A) is administrative; firing in the air (B) is a dangerous last resort; arresting office-bearers (D) without clear criminal acts may escalate the situation. Escorting is a proactive, de-escalatory measure to enable legitimate activity.

133. Which one of the following statements is correct ?

Which one of the following statements is correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”The responsibility of the Central Industrial Security Force is limited to protection of the physical infrastructure of the industrial establishments.” option2=”The responsibility of the Central Industrial Security Force extends to protecting the employees of the industrial undertakings.” option3=”The Central Industrial Security Force cannot be assigned any duty other than protection and security of the industrial establishments.” option4=”The Central Industrial Security Force cannot be assigned any duty outside India.” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017
The responsibility of the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) extends beyond protecting just the physical assets of an industrial establishment. Their mandate includes ensuring the overall security and safety of the premises, which inherently involves the protection of the employees working within those establishments.
CISF’s protective scope covers both assets and personnel within guarded establishments.
CISF’s role has diversified significantly and includes responsibilities for airports, metro systems, government buildings, museums, etc., demonstrating that their duties are not limited solely to industrial establishments or physical infrastructure protection. They can also be assigned duties outside India in specific contexts (e.g., embassy security, although this is not their primary role).

134. Which one of the following categories does not exist in the Central In

Which one of the following categories does not exist in the Central Industrial Security Force ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Subordinate Officers” option2=”Supervisory Officers” option3=”Junior Commissioned Officers” option4=”Under Officers” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017
Junior Commissioned Officer (JCO) is a rank category specific to the Indian Army. The Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), like other Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs), uses rank structures typically categorized into Gazetted Officers, Subordinate Officers, and Enrolled Members (Other Ranks).
JCO ranks are part of the Indian Army’s structure, not standard in CAPFs like CISF.
Subordinate Officers in CISF include ranks like Inspector, Sub-Inspector, and Assistant Sub-Inspector. Supervisory Officers typically refers to the Gazetted Officers. “Under Officers” is not a recognized category name in the CISF rank structure.

135. As per the provisions of the Central Industrial Security Force Act 196

As per the provisions of the Central Industrial Security Force Act 1968, “Force Custody” means

[amp_mcq option1=”confinement of the suspected miscreants.” option2=”confinement of a member of the Central Industrial Security Force.” option3=”custody of the arms and ammunition issued to the Central Industrial Security Force.” option4=”custody of the miscreants convicted by a court of law on account of their involvement in industrial subversion.” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017
As per provisions in acts governing Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) like CISF, “Force Custody” refers to the detention or confinement of a member of the Force by the competent authority of the Force for disciplinary or administrative reasons.
“Force Custody” is an internal disciplinary/administrative confinement specific to members of the uniformed force.
This is distinct from police custody or judicial custody which relates to civil law enforcement and the court system.

136. Consider the following statements related to the use of armed forces t

Consider the following statements related to the use of armed forces to disperse unlawful assembly:

  • Armed forces can be used when it cannot be otherwise dispersed.
  • Armed forces can be used when it is necessary for the public security.
  • Whether armed forces be used or not can be decided by any Executive Magistrate.
  • Whether armed forces be used or not can be decided by the Executive Magistrate of the highest rank who is present.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 2 and 4 only” option2=”1 and 3 only” option3=”2 and 4 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3 only” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017
The correct answer is A) 1, 2 and 4 only.
Section 130(1) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deals with the use of armed forces to disperse an unlawful assembly. It states that if an unlawful assembly cannot be otherwise dispersed (Statement 1) and if it is necessary for the public security that it should be dispersed (Statement 2), the Executive Magistrate of the highest rank who is present may cause it to be dispersed by the armed forces (Statement 4).
Statement 3 is incorrect because the decision to use armed forces is specifically vested in the Executive Magistrate of the *highest rank* present, not any Executive Magistrate. This ensures that such a grave decision is taken by the most senior available executive authority on the spot. Sections 130 and 131 outline the procedure and limitations for the use of armed forces in dispersing assemblies, emphasizing that it should only be resorted to when civil force is insufficient and public security necessitates it.

137. As per Section 129 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, dispersal

As per Section 129 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, dispersal of unlawful assembly by civil force can be commanded by

[amp_mcq option1=”any Judicial Magistrate or Executive Magistrate” option2=”any Executive Magistrate or Officer In-charge of a police station or any police officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector” option3=”District Magistrate or Superintendent of Police” option4=”any Magistrate or any police officer” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017
The correct answer is B) any Executive Magistrate or Officer In-charge of a police station or any police officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector.
Section 129(1) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 explicitly states that any Executive Magistrate or officer in charge of a police station, or in the absence of such officer, any police officer not below the rank of a Sub-Inspector, may command an unlawful assembly to disperse using civil force.
This section empowers specific officials to take immediate action to disperse an unlawful assembly using the available civil force (police). The authority is granted to officials based on their executive or police rank, allowing for prompt response to maintain public order. Judicial Magistrates are not granted this power under Section 129, as their role is judicial, not executive or law enforcement in this context.

138. The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern C

The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members ?

  • Governor of the Constituent State
  • Chief Minister of the Constituent State
  • Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
  • The Home Minister of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 2 and 3 only” option2=”1, 3 and 4 only” option3=”2 and 4 only” option4=”1, 2, 3 and 4″ correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2024
The correct answer is D, including all four listed members.
The North Eastern Council (NEC) Act, 1971, was amended in 2002. The amended Act stipulates the composition of the Council. The members include the Governors of the constituent states, the Chief Ministers of the constituent states, three members nominated by the President of India, and the Union Home Minister who serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Council. All four categories listed are therefore part of the Council’s composition.
The NEC is a regional planning body for the eight states of Northeast India (Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura). It is mandated to function as a regional planning body for the economic and social development of the region.

139. Consider the following statements: Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sa

Consider the following statements:

  • Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
  • The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
  • The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
  • In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”1, 2 and 4″ option3=”3 and 4 only” option4=”3 only” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was enacted following the recommendations of the H.N. Sanyal Committee. The Constitution (Articles 129 and 215) grants the Supreme Court and High Courts the power to punish for contempt of themselves. Parliament has the power to make laws relating to contempt of court (Entry 14, Union List).
Statement 3 is incorrect because the Constitution of India does not define civil and criminal contempt; these definitions are provided in the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.

140. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other document

Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by

[amp_mcq option1=”Long standing parliamentary convention” option2=”Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India” option3=”Article 113 of the Constitution of India” option4=”Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003″ correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2020
The document ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’ is presented along with the Budget because it is mandated by the provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003.
The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003, is an Act of the Parliament of India that sets targets for the government to establish financial discipline, reduce the fiscal deficit, and improve macroeconomic management. Section 3(1) of the Act requires the Central Government to lay before both Houses of Parliament certain documents along with the Annual Financial Statement (Budget). These documents include the Macro Economic Framework Statement, the Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement, and the Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement.
Article 112 of the Constitution of India requires the government to present an Annual Financial Statement (the Union Budget). Article 110 deals with Money Bills. Article 113 deals with the procedure in Parliament with respect to estimates. While these articles lay down the constitutional basis for the Budget presentation, the specific requirement to present documents like the Macro Economic Framework Statement alongside the budget originates from statutory requirements, specifically the FRBM Act. Parliamentary convention supports transparency and laying documents before Parliament, but the specific mandate for this document is legal.

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