The Parliament Archives

81. When a Member of the Parliament desires an oral answer from a Ministry

When a Member of the Parliament desires an oral answer from a Ministry, which one of the following types of questions will be suitable?

[amp_mcq option1=”Unstarred question” option2=”Starred question” option3=”Short notice question” option4=”Question to a private member” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CBI DSP LDCE – 2023

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In parliamentary proceedings, questions are classified based on how they are answered.
A) Unstarred question: Requires a written answer from the minister. No supplementary questions can be asked.
B) Starred question: Requires an oral answer from the minister. Supplementary questions can be asked by the members after the answer is given. Starred questions are marked with an asterisk (*) on the question list.
C) Short notice question: Relates to a matter of urgent public importance and can be asked with a notice shorter than 10 days with the permission of the Speaker/Chairman. It is answered orally.
D) Question to a private member: Addressed to an MP who is not a minister, concerning a bill, resolution, or other matter related to the business of the House for which that member is responsible. It is answered orally.
The question asks for a question that requires an *oral answer* and allows for follow-up questions (implied by the oral nature and parliamentary procedure). Starred questions are the primary type of question for seeking oral answers followed by supplementary questions. While short notice questions are also answered orally, they are for urgent matters and require Speaker’s permission. The standard format for desiring an oral answer from a Ministry with the possibility of supplementaries is a Starred Question.

Starred questions are distinguished by requiring an oral answer from the minister and allowing supplementary questions.

Question Hour is the first hour of every parliamentary sitting, reserved for asking and answering questions. The list of questions is categorised into Starred, Unstarred, and Short Notice questions.

82. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bi

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament ?

1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

Select the answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1, 2 and 3″ option4=”1, 3 and 4″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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The correct answer is C, including statements 1, 2, and 3.

Statement 1 is correct as Article 109 of the Indian Constitution lays down the special procedure for Money Bills. Statement 2 is correct because a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha (House of the People), as per Article 109(1). Statement 3 is correct as the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) has limited powers regarding a Money Bill; it cannot reject it but can only suggest amendments and must return it to the Lok Sabha within 14 days (Article 109(2)). Statement 4 is incorrect because the Lok Sabha is not bound to accept the recommendations made by the Rajya Sabha regarding a Money Bill; it may accept or reject any or all of them (Article 109(3)).

A Money Bill is defined in Article 110 of the Constitution. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha certifies whether a Bill is a Money Bill, and this decision is final. The Lok Sabha plays the dominant role in the legislative process for Money Bills.

83. With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements :

With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements :

1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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Statement 1 is incorrect. According to Article 112 of the Constitution, the *President* of India shall cause to be laid before both Houses of Parliament the Annual Financial Statement (Union Budget). While the Finance Minister presents the budget on behalf of the government, the constitutional requirement is that the President causes it to be laid. Statement 2 is correct. According to Article 113(3) of the Constitution, no demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President. This ensures presidential oversight over the initiation of expenditure proposals from the Consolidated Fund of India.

The President is constitutionally mandated to cause the Annual Financial Statement to be laid before Parliament, and demands for grants require the President’s recommendation.

The Annual Financial Statement is a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for that financial year. Article 113 outlines the procedure for dealing with estimates relating to expenditure in Parliament.

84. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following stat

With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

Prerogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Prerogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”1 and 2″ option3=”2 and 3″ option4=”3 only” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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Statement 1 is incorrect: The President exercises the power of prorogation (and summoning a session) on the advice of the Council of Ministers, specifically the Government’s recommendation conveyed by the Prime Minister. Statement 2 is correct: Prorogation brings a session of the House to an end. While it is usually done after the House has been adjourned sine die (indefinitely), the President has the power to prorogue the House even while it is in session. Statement 3 is correct: Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President. While the President typically acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers (especially after a government loses confidence or completes its term), there can be exceptional circumstances (like a hung Parliament where no viable government can be formed) where the President might exercise some discretion, though the primary convention is to act on advice.

– Prorogation is the termination of a Parliament session by the President.
– Dissolution is the termination of the life of the Lok Sabha, requiring fresh elections.
– Both powers are generally exercised by the President on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.
– Prorogation can occur while the House is sitting, not just after sine die adjournment.

The powers of summoning, prorogation, and dissolution are constitutional prerogatives of the President but are exercised subject to the principles of parliamentary democracy, where the executive (Council of Ministers) is accountable to the legislature (Lok Sabha). The advice of the CoM is binding on the President in normal circumstances.

85. With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statem

With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements :

1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A bill in regard to which the President of India has notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”1 and 2″ option3=”2 and 3″ option4=”3 only” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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Statement 1 is correct: A bill pending in the Lok Sabha (either introduced there and not passed, or passed by Rajya Sabha and pending for consideration/amendment in Lok Sabha) lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is correct: A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha (either for passage or due to disagreement) lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Statement 3 is incorrect: According to Article 108(5), if the President has notified his intention to summon a joint sitting of both Houses under Article 108 in respect of a bill, such bill does not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

– Dissolution of the Lok Sabha terminates the life of the House, and pending business generally lapses.
– Bills originating and pending in Rajya Sabha do not lapse on Lok Sabha dissolution.
– Bills passed by both Houses but pending President’s assent do not lapse.
– Bills where a joint sitting has been notified by the President before dissolution do not lapse.

The rules regarding the lapsing of bills upon dissolution of the Lok Sabha are outlined in Article 107 of the Constitution. These rules are crucial for understanding the legislative process and continuity in the Indian Parliament. The exception for bills headed for a joint sitting is designed to ensure that deadlock-resolving mechanisms initiated before dissolution are not nullified.

86. With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following

With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :
While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration

1. He/She shall not preside.
2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”1 and 2 only” option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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Statement 1 is correct: Article 96(1) of the Constitution of India states that while a resolution for the removal of the Speaker is under consideration, the Speaker shall not preside at the sitting of the House. Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 96(2) explicitly states that the Speaker shall have the right to speak in and otherwise take part in the proceedings. Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 96(2) states that the Speaker shall be entitled to vote only in the first instance on such resolution or any other matter during such proceedings but not in the case of an equality of votes. This means they can vote in the first instance, unlike the general rule where the Speaker only votes in case of a tie (casting vote) when presiding. The statement says they shall *not* be entitled to vote in the first instance, which is the opposite of the constitutional provision.

– The procedure for the Speaker’s removal is laid down in Article 96 of the Constitution.
– The Speaker cannot preside when their removal resolution is being considered.
– The Speaker retains the right to speak and participate in the debate.
– The Speaker can vote in the first instance on such a resolution.

The provisions ensure that the Speaker, while facing a potential removal, has the opportunity to defend themselves in the House, but cannot use the chair’s power to influence the process. The right to vote in the first instance is a specific exception to the normal rule of the Speaker’s casting vote.

87. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following

With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 3 only” option2=”1, 2 and 3″ option3=”3 and 4 only” option4=”2 and 4 only” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2022

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Statement 1 is correct. Rule 8(1) of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha states: “The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix, and the Secretary-General shall send to every member notice of the date so fixed.”
Statement 2 is incorrect. There is no mandatory constitutional or statutory provision, nor is it a rule of the Lok Sabha, that the Deputy Speaker must belong to either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. While there has been a convention since the 11th Lok Sabha (1996) to offer the post to a member of the opposition party, this is a parliamentary practice and not a mandatory rule.
Statement 3 is correct. Article 95(1) of the Constitution states that while performing the duties of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker has all the powers of the Speaker. Rule 10 of the Rules of Procedure explicitly states that the Deputy Speaker has the same powers as the Speaker when presiding over a sitting of the House. The rulings of the presiding officer (Speaker or Deputy Speaker) in the Chair cannot be appealed against in the House.
Statement 4 is incorrect. The motion for the election of the Deputy Speaker is moved by a member of the House and seconded by another member. While the ruling party usually fields the candidate and ensures the motion is moved and seconded, the formal procedure is initiated by a member, not the Speaker or the Prime Minister directly in their official capacity as such.

The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members. They preside over the House in the absence of the Speaker and have the same powers as the Speaker when presiding.

The Deputy Speaker is subordinate not to the Speaker, but to the House. They receive a salary and allowances fixed by Parliament. The office of Deputy Speaker falls vacant when they cease to be a member of the Lok Sabha, or if they resign to the Speaker, or if they are removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the House.

88. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha ?

Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha ?

1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2″ option2=”2 only” option3=”1 and 3″ option4=”3 only” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2022

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Only statement 2 describes an exclusive power of the Lok Sabha.

The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha (Article 75(3)). Therefore, a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers can only be moved and passed in the Lok Sabha (Statement 2 is correct and an exclusive power). The resolution approving a proclamation of Emergency must be passed by *both* Houses of Parliament (Statement 1 is incorrect). An impeachment charge against the President can be initiated in *either* House of Parliament, and the other House investigates the charge (Statement 3 is incorrect).

Exclusive powers of the Lok Sabha also include passing Money Bills (which can only be introduced in Lok Sabha) and effectively controlling the purse strings of the government.

89. With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Dev

With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct ?

1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations.
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”3 and 4 only” option3=”1, 2 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 4 only” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2020

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Statement 1: MPLADS guidelines explicitly state that the focus should be on the creation of durable assets such as buildings, roads, bridges, school buildings, health centres, etc., for public use. This statement is correct.
Statement 2: The guidelines mandate that a certain percentage of the funds should be used for creating assets in areas predominantly inhabited by Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST). Currently, this allocation is 15% for SC concentrated areas and 7.5% for ST concentrated areas. This statement is correct.
Statement 3: MPLADS funds are not sanctioned on a yearly basis only. The entitlement is Rs 5 crore per MP per year. Importantly, unused funds *can* be carried forward to the subsequent years within the term of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha MP. The statement says unused funds cannot be carried forward, which is incorrect.
Statement 4: MPLADS guidelines require the District Authority to inspect at least 10% of the works completed or under implementation every year to ensure proper execution and quality. This statement is correct.
Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

– MPLADS funds are for creating durable community assets.
– Specific allocation for SC/ST areas is mandatory.
– Unused funds can be carried forward.
– District authorities must inspect a minimum percentage of works.

MPLADS is a scheme formulated by the Government of India which enables Members of Parliament to recommend developmental work in their constituencies. The scheme aims to create durable community assets based on locally felt needs. The responsibility for implementation lies with the District Authority.

90. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in

Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in

[amp_mcq option1=”the matter of creating new All India Services” option2=”amending the Constitution” option3=”the removal of the government” option4=”making cut motions” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2020

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A) Creating new All India Services: This power is vested *exclusively* in the Rajya Sabha by Article 312. The Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a special majority, authorizing Parliament to create new All India Services. Lok Sabha does not have equal power here; it requires Rajya Sabha’s initiation.
B) Amending the Constitution: A Bill to amend the Constitution can be introduced in either House of Parliament. It must be passed by each House by a special majority (majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting). Both Houses have equal powers in the process of constitutional amendment.
C) The removal of the government: The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha (Article 75(3)). A no-confidence motion, which leads to the removal of the government, can only be moved and voted upon in the Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha does not have this power.
D) Making cut motions: Cut motions are part of the budgetary process and are specific to the Lok Sabha. Money Bills, including appropriation bills related to budget demands, originate in the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha has limited powers, primarily advisory, regarding Money Bills (Article 109).
Therefore, Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in amending the Constitution.

– Rajya Sabha has exclusive power over creating All India Services (Article 312).
– Both Houses have equal powers in the process of Constitutional Amendment (Article 368).
– The government is responsible only to the Lok Sabha.
– Financial matters, including budget and cut motions, are primarily within the domain of the Lok Sabha.

The unequal powers of the two Houses reflect the federal nature (Rajya Sabha represents states, given exclusive power over AIS affecting states) and the principle of responsible government (Lok Sabha represents the people directly and controls the executive).