The Parliament

141. Consider the following statements about the Constitution of India: 1.

Consider the following statements about the Constitution of India:
1. A Member of Parliament enjoys freedom of speech in the Parliament as a Parliamentary Privilege protected by the Constitution of India.
2. The Constitution has vested the power to amend the Constitution in the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option3″]

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UPSC NDA-2 – 2016
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Statement 1: Article 105 of the Constitution of India deals with the powers, privileges, etc., of the Houses of Parliament and the members and committees thereof. Article 105(1) states that “subject to the provisions of this Constitution and to the rules and standing orders regulating the procedure of Parliament, there shall be freedom of speech in Parliament.” Article 105(2) further protects this privilege by stating that “no member shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or any committee thereof”. Thus, freedom of speech in Parliament is a constitutionally protected parliamentary privilege. Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2: Article 368 of the Constitution outlines the procedure for amendment of the Constitution. It clearly states that the power to amend the Constitution is vested in the Parliament. The article details the requirements for introducing an amendment bill and the majorities required for its passage in Parliament, and in some cases, ratification by state legislatures. Statement 2 is correct.
Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities, and exemptions enjoyed by Members of Parliament collectively and individually, which are necessary for the effective discharge of their functions. The power to amend the constitution is a constituent power exercised by the Parliament under specific procedures.
The freedom of speech in Parliament is not absolute; it is subject to the provisions of the Constitution and the rules and standing orders of Parliament. However, it provides immunity from court proceedings regarding statements made or votes cast within Parliament. Article 368 specifies different procedures for different types of amendments, but the power rests with the Parliament.

142. The elections to the Lower House of the Parliament of India, held in 2

The elections to the Lower House of the Parliament of India, held in 2019, constituted the

[amp_mcq option1=”14th Lok Sabha” option2=”15th Lok Sabha” option3=”16th Lok Sabha” option4=”17th Lok Sabha” correct=”option4″]

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UPSC NDA-1 – 2022
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The elections to the Lower House of the Parliament of India (Lok Sabha) held in 2019 were the 17th general elections since India’s independence. Consequently, the Lok Sabha constituted after these elections is the 17th Lok Sabha.
The first general election in India was held in 1951-52, forming the 1st Lok Sabha. Subsequent elections have been held generally every five years, with some exceptions due to premature dissolution.
The 14th Lok Sabha was constituted in 2004, the 15th Lok Sabha in 2009, and the 16th Lok Sabha in 2014.

143. Which one of the following is not a power of the Speaker of the Lok

Which one of the following is not a power of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Speaker shall preside over the House of the People.” option2=”Speaker will cast vote in the first instance in the House.” option3=”Speaker will have power to maintain order within the House of the People.” option4=”Speaker can adjourn the House or suspend the meeting till there is a quorum.” correct=”option2″]

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UPSC NDA-1 – 2021
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The Speaker of the Lok Sabha does not cast a vote in the first instance. The Speaker’s role is to preside over the proceedings impartially. The Speaker casts a ‘casting vote’ only in the event of a tie in the votes upon a question before the House. This is to break the deadlock and is based on the convention that the Speaker should not participate in the general debate or voting.
The Speaker is the principal presiding officer of the Lok Sabha. Their powers include maintaining order and decorum, interpreting the rules of procedure, adjourning the House or suspending its meeting in the absence of a quorum, deciding money bills, and presiding over joint sittings of Parliament.
The position of the Speaker is one of great dignity and authority. The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members. The casting vote ensures that a decision is reached when there is an equal division of votes.

144. Which one of the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha is NOT

Which one of the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha is NOT correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Its members are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of a State” option2=”The election follows the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote” option3=”1/3rd of its members retire after every two years” option4=”It is a permanent body, but can be dissolved earlier by the President” correct=”option4″]

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UPSC NDA-1 – 2019
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The statement “It is a permanent body, but can be dissolved earlier by the President” is NOT correct.
The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. While it is permanent, its members serve terms. One-third of its members retire after every two years, and new members are elected to fill the vacancies. The President does not have the power to dissolve the Rajya Sabha.
Statements A, B, and C are correct descriptions of the Rajya Sabha. Members are elected by elected MLAs using proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote, and the system of periodic retirement ensures its continuous nature.

145. Which one of the following about the Parliament of India is NOT correc

Which one of the following about the Parliament of India is NOT correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”The Parliament consists of the President, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha” option2=”There are no nominated members in the Lok Sabha” option3=”The Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved” option4=”Some members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC NDA-1 – 2018
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Statement B, “There are no nominated members in the Lok Sabha,” is NOT correct as per the provisions of the Constitution as it existed for a long time. Article 331 of the Constitution of India provided for the nomination of two members from the Anglo-Indian community by the President to the Lok Sabha, if the President felt that the community was not adequately represented. This provision was in effect until it was repealed by the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019, which came into effect in January 2020. Given that UPSC questions often reflect the constitutional structure over time, Statement B would have been incorrect prior to 2020. Statements A, C, and D are correct constitutional provisions regarding the Parliament.
Article 79 of the Constitution states that the Parliament of the Union shall consist of the President and two Houses to be known respectively as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha). The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution, with members retiring every two years. The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha from persons having special knowledge or practical experience in respect of such matters as literature, science, art, and social service.
The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019, effectively discontinued the reservation of seats for the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies, and thus the provision for their nomination. Therefore, currently, there are indeed no nominated members in the Lok Sabha. However, judging from the framing and potential age of such a question, it refers to the constitutional provision that existed for decades.

146. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may resign his office by writing, address

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may resign his office by writing, addressed to the

[amp_mcq option1=”President of India” option2=”Prime Minister of India” option3=”Vice President of India” option4=”Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha” correct=”option4″]

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UPSC NDA-1 – 2016
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The correct answer is D) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
– Article 94 of the Constitution of India deals with the vacation, resignation, and removal of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
– As per Article 94(b), the Speaker may resign his office by writing addressed to the Deputy Speaker. Similarly, the Deputy Speaker resigns by writing addressed to the Speaker.
– The Speaker and Deputy Speaker are internal office holders of the Lok Sabha and their resignation process is designed to maintain continuity within the House leadership.
The Speaker is the principal presiding officer of the Lok Sabha. The office of the Speaker is independent and impartial. The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant or when the Speaker is absent from the sitting of the House.

147. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Motions’ in the Par

Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Motions’ in the Parliament of India :

  • 1. A Censure Motion must specify the ground on which it is based.
  • 2. A Censure Motion can be moved even against an individual minister.
  • 3. A No-confidence Motion can be initiated in either House of the Parliament. However, a government will fall only if the No-confidence Motion is passed in the Lok Sabha.
  • 4. A No-confidence Motion must specify the charges against the Council of Ministers on the basis of which the Motion is to be based.

How many of the above statements is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1″ option2=”2″ option3=”3″ option4=”4″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Geoscientist – 2024
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Statement 1 is correct: A Censure Motion is specific and must state the reasons or grounds for the censure. Statement 2 is correct: A Censure Motion can be moved against the entire Council of Ministers, a group of Ministers, or even an individual Minister. Statement 3 is incorrect: A No-confidence Motion can *only* be initiated in the Lok Sabha (House of the People). Statement 4 is incorrect: A No-confidence Motion does not need to state the grounds or charges; it simply expresses a lack of confidence in the Council of Ministers as a whole. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct. The question asks how many statements are correct, and there are 2 correct statements (1 and 2).
– Censure Motion: Expresses disapproval of specific policy or action, requires grounds, can be against individual Minister or group or the whole Council. If passed, does not necessarily lead to resignation but indicates severe disapproval.
– No-confidence Motion: Tests the confidence of the Lok Sabha in the entire Council of Ministers. Can only be moved in Lok Sabha. If passed, the Council of Ministers must resign. Does not require specifying grounds.
Both Censure Motion and No-confidence Motion are tools used by the opposition to check the executive. A No-confidence Motion requires the support of at least 50 members to be admitted in the Lok Sabha.

148. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the parli

Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the parliamentary practice of asking Questions in the Parliament of India ?

  • 1. The first hour of every sitting in both the Houses of Parliament is devoted to asking questions, referred to as the ‘Question Hour’.
  • 2. Questions are generally asked by the Members of Parliament from the Ministers.
  • 3. ‘Half-an-Hour Discussions’ on matters arising out of questions already answered can be held only in the Lok Sabha.
  • 4. Questions cannot be addressed to a private member.

Select the answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2″ option2=”2 and 3″ option3=”3 and 4″ option4=”2 and 4″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Geoscientist – 2024
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Statement 3 is incorrect because ‘Half-an-Hour Discussions’ on matters arising out of questions already answered can be held in *both* the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, not just the Lok Sabha. Statement 4 is incorrect because questions *can* be addressed to a private member if the question relates to a Bill, Resolution, or other matter for which that member is responsible in their capacity as a private member. Therefore, statements 3 and 4 are not correct.
– Statement 1 is correct: The first hour of every sitting in both Houses is the ‘Question Hour’.
– Statement 2 is correct: Questions are primarily directed at Ministers to hold the executive accountable.
– Statement 3 is incorrect: Half-an-Hour Discussions are held in both Houses.
– Statement 4 is incorrect: Questions can be addressed to private members under specific circumstances.
The rules regarding questions are detailed in the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the respective Houses of Parliament. Question Hour is an important mechanism for parliamentary oversight. While questions are mainly for Ministers, addressing them to private members ensures accountability for their legislative or parliamentary actions.

149. Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to the

Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to the types of questions asked in the Lok Sabha?

[amp_mcq option1=”A ‘Starred Question’ is the one to which only a written answer is given.” option2=”A ‘Short Notice Question’ is the one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance.” option3=”An ‘Unstarred Question’ is the one to which an oral answer is not given.” option4=”No supplementary question can be asked on an ‘Unstarred Question’.” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Geoscientist – 2024
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Statement A is incorrect because a ‘Starred Question’ is one for which an oral answer is required from the Minister, and supplementary questions can be asked based on the answer. A written answer is given for an ‘Unstarred Question’.
– Starred Question: Requires oral answer, supplementary questions allowed. Distinguished by an asterisk (*).
– Unstarred Question: Requires written answer, no supplementary questions allowed.
– Short Notice Question: Relates to a matter of urgent public importance, requires an oral answer and consent of the Minister and Speaker. Can be asked with a notice period shorter than the usual 10 days.
Questions are an important tool for Members of Parliament to seek information from the government, hold Ministers accountable, and raise matters of public interest during the ‘Question Hour’, which is the first hour of every parliamentary sitting.

150. Which of the following statements is/are correct as per the Constituti

Which of the following statements is/are correct as per the Constitution of India ?

  • 1. The Parliament of India has the power to make provisions with respect to delimitation of constituencies.
  • 2. The validity of a law made by the Parliament of India with respect to delimitation of constituencies shall not be called in question in a court.

Select the answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Geoscientist – 2024
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Both statements regarding delimitation of constituencies as per the Constitution of India are correct.
– Statement 1 is correct. Article 82 of the Constitution empowers the Parliament to enact a law to provide for the readjustment of seats in the Lok Sabha and the division of each State into territorial constituencies after every census. Similarly, Article 170 deals with the composition and delimitation of constituencies for State Legislative Assemblies, with provisions for delimitation laws made by or under the authority of Parliament. Parliament establishes a Delimitation Commission for this purpose.
– Statement 2 is correct. Article 329(a) of the Constitution specifically prohibits courts from inquiring into the validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies or the allotment of seats to such constituencies made under Article 82 or Article 170. This provides judicial immunity to delimitation laws.
Delimitation is the process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies in a country or a province having legislative body. The process is carried out by a Delimitation Commission, whose orders have the force of law and cannot be called in question before any court.
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