81. If, during the probation period of a member of the Central Industrial

If, during the probation period of a member of the Central Industrial Security Force, the appointing authority is of the opinion that the member is not fit for permanent appointment, which one of the following actions cannot be taken by the appointing authority?

[amp_mcq option1=”The appointing authority may terminate his/her services after giving one month’s notice.” option2=”The appointing authority may terminate his/her services with immediate effect but after giving three months’ pay in lieu of the aforesaid notice.” option3=”The appointing authority may revert him/her to the rank from which he/she was promoted.” option4=”The appointing authority may repatriate him/her to his/her parent department, as the case may be.” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018
CISF Rules, 2001, Rule 24 deals with the termination of services of probationers. Rule 24(a) allows termination by giving one month’s notice. Rule 24(b) allows termination by paying a sum equivalent to the amount of pay plus allowances for *one month* in lieu of notice. Option B describes terminating services with immediate effect after giving *three months’* pay in lieu of notice. This is not in accordance with Rule 24.
CISF Rules specify termination of probation with one month’s notice or one month’s pay in lieu thereof, not three months’ pay.
Option A (one month’s notice) and Option C (reversion to promoted rank) are valid actions under Rule 24 for different scenarios of probationers. Option D (repatriation) is also a standard action for deputationists failing probation, though not explicitly detailed in Rule 24 itself. Option B is incorrect due to the specified duration of pay in lieu.

82. Which one of the following is not correct in relation to the penalty f

Which one of the following is not correct in relation to the penalty for neglect of duty prescribed in the Central Industrial Security Force Act?

[amp_mcq option1=”A member of the Force convicted of neglect of duty cannot be punished with imprisonment.” option2=”The offence of neglect of duty is cognizable and non-bailable, notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.” option3=”The Central Government may invest the Commandant with the powers of a Magistrate for trying the offence of neglect of duty.” option4=”There is no absolute bar on an offence punishable under the Act to be tried by an ordinary criminal court.” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018
Section 12 of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968, prescribes the penalties for neglect of duty and other specified offences. It states that a member convicted of such an offence “shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to five hundred rupees, or with both.” Statement A says a member *cannot* be punished with imprisonment, which directly contradicts Section 12.
The CISF Act explicitly allows for imprisonment as a punishment for neglect of duty, making the statement that imprisonment cannot be awarded incorrect.
Option B is partially correct; Section 13(1) makes the offence cognizable. However, the Act does not state it is non-bailable; based on CrPC classification for offences with max 6 months imprisonment, it is generally bailable. So, the “non-bailable” part of B is incorrect, making B also an incorrect statement. However, A is a more direct contradiction of the punishment defined in the Act. Option C is correct as Section 15 allows the Central Government to invest Commandants with magisterial powers. Option D is correct as Section 16 confirms concurrent jurisdiction of ordinary criminal courts. Given the options and typical question design, A is the intended incorrect statement focusing on the defined penalty.

83. Which of the following fall/s within the scope of technical consultanc

Which of the following fall/s within the scope of technical consultancy services rendered by the Central Industrial Security Force?

[amp_mcq option1=”Studying the industrial security and fire protection related problems and suggesting appropriate solutions” option2=”Preparing disaster management and contingency plan and conducting rehearsals for such plans” option3=”Planning and designing of communication networks and preparation of related operations instructions” option4=”All of the above” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018
The Central Industrial Security Force provides comprehensive technical consultancy services related to security, fire protection, and safety for industrial establishments and other vital installations. This includes evaluating existing security/fire arrangements, recommending solutions (Option A), developing disaster management and contingency plans and conducting drills (Option B), and designing/planning communication systems relevant to security operations (Option C). Therefore, all the listed options fall within the scope of CISF’s technical consultancy services.
CISF offers technical consultancy covering various aspects of industrial security, including physical security, fire safety, disaster management, and communication systems.
CISF has a dedicated consultancy wing comprising experienced officers and technical experts who conduct security and fire vulnerability assessments and provide tailored recommendations to clients.

84. The Director General of the Central Industrial Security Force is appoi

The Director General of the Central Industrial Security Force is appointed by the

[amp_mcq option1=”Bureau of Public Enterprises” option2=”National Security Council Secretariat” option3=”Central Government” option4=”Cabinet Committee on Security” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018
The Director General (DG) of the Central Industrial Security Force, being the head of a Central Armed Police Force (CAPF), is appointed by the Central Government. These appointments are typically made at the highest level of the government, often after approval by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC).
Appointments to the post of Director General of CAPFs are made by the Union Central Government.
The Central Government, through the Ministry of Home Affairs, has administrative control over the CISF and makes key appointments, including that of the Director General. Options A, B, and D represent different government bodies, but the ultimate appointing authority for such a high-level post is the Central Government.

85. While being deputed for natural disaster, which one of the following i

While being deputed for natural disaster, which one of the following is not the role of CISF ?

[amp_mcq option1=”If a dead body is found, it should be handed over to the police.” option2=”If a decomposed body is found, it should be quickly disposed of.” option3=”If any ornaments, watch or any item of identification is available, it should be preserved and handed over to the police.” option4=”Continue search for the lost persons.” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017
The correct answer is B) If a decomposed body is found, it should be quickly disposed of. This is incorrect and goes against standard disaster management and humanitarian protocols.
– During natural disasters, the role of forces like CISF includes search and rescue operations and assisting the civil administration.
– Handling of dead bodies found at a disaster site involves specific procedures: recovery, documentation, preservation of potential evidence (like ornaments, identification), and handing over to designated authorities (police, medical teams, forensic experts) for identification, post-mortem (if necessary), and dignified final disposal.
– Quick disposal of a decomposed body by security forces alone is not a recognised or acceptable protocol; it requires proper handling, investigation, and coordination with medical and police authorities for identification and health safety reasons.
– Options A, C, and D represent standard and appropriate roles for a force involved in disaster relief: searching for missing persons, recovering bodies, preserving belongings for identification, and handing over bodies and evidence to police or other relevant authorities.

86. Which of the following are the branches of the Central Industrial Secu

Which of the following are the branches of the Central Industrial Security Force ?

  1. Executive Branch
  2. Ministerial Branch
  3. Fire Services Branch

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”1, 2 and 3″ option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”2 and 3 only” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017
The correct answer is B) 1, 2 and 3. The Central Industrial Security Force comprises the Executive Branch, Ministerial Branch, and Fire Services Branch.
– The Executive Branch consists of personnel involved in security duties, command, and field operations.
– The Ministerial Branch comprises administrative and clerical staff supporting the force’s operations.
– The Fire Services Branch is a specialised wing of the CISF providing fire prevention and fighting services, particularly in industrial undertakings and public sector units under the CISF’s security cover.
– CISF plays a crucial role in providing security cover to various critical infrastructure sectors in India, including airports, seaports, power plants, space installations, and government buildings. Its structure with executive, ministerial, and specialised branches like fire services reflects the diverse nature of its responsibilities.

87. In case of a hijack of an Aircraft registered in India landing at an I

In case of a hijack of an Aircraft registered in India landing at an Indian Airport, the executive responsibility for hands on crisis management rests with

[amp_mcq option1=”Central Committee chaired by DGCA” option2=”Committee of Secretaries (COSAH) headed by the Cabinet Secretary” option3=”Aerodrome Committee of the concerned airport headed by the Airport Director” option4=”Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) headed by the Prime Minister” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017
The correct answer is C) Aerodrome Committee of the concerned airport headed by the Airport Director.
According to India’s National Anti-Hijacking Contingency Plan (NAPCP), the Aerodrome Committee at the concerned airport is the primary body responsible for the hands-on, on-site crisis management during an aircraft hijack incident.
The Aerodrome Committee is headed by the Airport Director and includes representatives from relevant agencies like CISF, ATC, airlines, state police, etc. The Committee of Secretaries on Aircraft Hijack (COSAH) and the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) handle policy, strategic direction, and high-level approvals, while the Aerodrome Committee manages the tactical and operational response at the airport.

88. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”As per the Constitution of India, the Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Parliament.” option2=”Residual Powers are vested in the Parliament.” option3=”The President of India is the Constitutional Head of the Executive of the Union.” option4=”As per the Constitution of India, there is provision for independence of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CBI DSP LDCE – 2023
Option A states that the Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Parliament. As per Article 75(3) of the Constitution of India, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha). While the Lok Sabha is a part of the Parliament, the specific constitutional provision names the Lok Sabha, not the Parliament as a whole. Therefore, stating responsibility to the entire Parliament is not constitutionally precise and is considered incorrect in a strict sense compared to the other options which are correctly stated.
Collective responsibility means that the entire Council of Ministers stands or falls together. If a no-confidence motion is passed against the Council of Ministers in the Lok Sabha, the entire council has to resign.
Option B is correct (Article 248 and Entry 97 of Union List). Option C is correct (Article 53 read with Article 74). Option D is correct (Articles 148-151 ensure the independence of the CAG by providing security of tenure, making his removal difficult, charging his salary on the Consolidated Fund of India, etc.).

89. Which one of the following is not a correct description of the nature

Which one of the following is not a correct description of the nature of India’s federalism?

[amp_mcq option1=”India’s federalism is based on the doctrine of ‘Separation of Powers'” option2=”The Supreme Court of India is independently entitled to interpret the Constitution” option3=”There are different tiers of the Government and each tier has specified jurisdiction” option4=”Sources of revenue for each level of the Government are specified” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CBI DSP LDCE – 2023
Statement A is not a correct description of India’s federalism. While the doctrine of ‘Separation of Powers’ is a principle concerning the division of powers among the three organs of government (legislature, executive, judiciary), federalism primarily concerns the division of powers between different levels of government (Union and States). Indian federalism is characterized by a division of powers between the Union and the States as defined in the Constitution (Seventh Schedule), an independent judiciary to interpret the Constitution (Statement B), multiple tiers of government with specified jurisdictions (Statement C), and division of revenue sources (Statement D).
India’s federalism is based on the division of powers between levels of government, not primarily on the separation of powers among the organs of government.
Indian federalism is often described as ‘quasi-federal’ or ‘federal in form but unitary in spirit’ due to the strong central government, especially during emergencies. Key features include a written constitution, division of powers, supremacy of the constitution, independent judiciary, and bicameral legislature. However, it also has unitary features like a single constitution, single citizenship, integrated judiciary, appointment of state governors by the Centre, and the Union’s power to legislate on State subjects under certain conditions.

90. With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Program

With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements :

  • To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
  • Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are Digitised.
  • An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2024
Statement 1 is correct as the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP) is a Central Sector Scheme, implying 100% funding by the Central Government. Statement 2 is correct as a key objective of DILRMP is the digitization of cadastral maps. Statement 3 is incorrect as the primary focus is on digitizing records and integrating them with maps, not necessarily transliterating them into *any* recognized language, although accessibility in the local language and sometimes English is considered.
DILRMP is a Centrally funded scheme aiming to digitize land records and maps for improved land management.
The DILRMP aims to build an integrated land information system. Components include computerization of land records, digitization of cadastral maps, survey/re-survey, computerization of registration, and capacity building. The scheme focuses on accurate, transparent, and easily accessible land information systems. Transliteration to *any* of the constitutionally recognized languages for all records is not a stated core objective.

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