The Governance System

The CISF was first inducted for aviation security duties at

[amp_mcq option1=”Delhi airport.” option2=”Mumbai airport.” option3=”Jaipur airport.” option4=”Guwahati airport.” correct=”option3″]

The correct answer is C. The Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) was first inducted for aviation security duties at Jaipur airport.

CISF took over security duties at Jaipur airport on February 3, 2000, on a pilot project basis. Following the success of this pilot, CISF was progressively inducted at other major airports across India.

Prior to CISF, airport security was primarily handled by state police forces. The decision to hand over aviation security to a dedicated central paramilitary force like CISF was taken after the hijacking of IC 814 in December 1999, highlighting the need for a more unified and professional approach to airport security.

In which year was CISF declared as an Armed Force of the Union ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1969″ option2=”1973″ option3=”1983″ option4=”1990″ correct=”option3″]

The Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) was declared an Armed Force of the Union in the year 1983.

CISF was established on March 10, 1969, under an Act of the Parliament of India. Initially, it was not an armed force. The amendment in 1983 upgraded its status, empowering its personnel with greater authority and legal protection necessary for performing their security duties effectively, including the power to arrest without a warrant and search.

This change in status in 1983 was significant, transforming CISF from a mere security guard force into a full-fledged armed force capable of handling more complex security challenges and threats to vital installations across the country.

Broadly speaking, the role and responsibility of CISF deployed at an industrial undertaking would consist of which of the following ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Protection of vital installations of the undertaking against attacks, sabotage or other types of damage” option2=”Prevention of crime against property of the undertaking” option3=”Collection of criminal intelligence regarding activities of criminals indulging in crime against property of the undertaking” option4=”All of the above” correct=”option4″]

All the listed options (A, B, and C) are part of the broad role and responsibilities of the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) when deployed at an industrial undertaking.

The primary mandate of CISF is to provide security cover to Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) and other critical infrastructure. This involves physically protecting assets and personnel from various threats (A), preventing theft, vandalism, and other crimes against property (B), and gathering intelligence related to security threats and criminal activities targeting the undertaking (C).

CISF’s duties also include access control, patrolling, disaster management assistance, and maintaining overall security discipline within the premises of the protected unit. Their role is comprehensive, aimed at ensuring a safe and secure environment for industrial operations.

Which one of the following is not necessary for perimeter security ?

[amp_mcq option1=”CCTV” option2=”Water moat” option3=”Alarm system” option4=”Lighting” correct=”option2″]

The correct answer is B) Water moat. While a water moat can act as a physical barrier, it is not a standard or universally necessary component of modern perimeter security, unlike electronic surveillance, detection systems, and illumination.

Modern perimeter security relies on a layered approach, typically including physical barriers (fences, walls), surveillance (CCTV), detection systems (alarms, sensors), and deterrence mechanisms (lighting, signage). CCTV, alarm systems, and lighting are widely used and considered fundamental components for effective perimeter security in various settings (industrial, infrastructure, residential). A water moat is a less common, more specialized, and often impractical barrier in most contemporary security applications.

Options A, C, and D represent essential elements of an integrated perimeter security system. CCTV provides visual monitoring, alarm systems detect intrusion attempts, and lighting enhances visibility for surveillance and acts as a deterrent during hours of darkness. A water moat’s effectiveness depends heavily on the environment and is often cost-prohibitive and difficult to maintain compared to other barriers.

Which of the following is/are the duty/duties of the ROP ?

[amp_mcq option1=”To secure the road route from ambush” option2=”To secure the road route from land mines and IEDs” option3=”To keep the route secure till the convoy has passed completely” option4=”All of the above” correct=”option4″]

The correct answer is D) All of the above. All the listed points are standard duties of a Road Opening Party (ROP).

A Road Opening Party (ROP) is deployed ahead of a convoy, patrol, or important movement along a route, especially in areas with potential threats. Their primary role is to sanitize the route and ensure its safety. This involves checking for potential ambush sites, searching for explosive devices (mines, IEDs), and maintaining security along the route until the protected movement has safely passed.

ROP operations are crucial for ensuring the safe passage of personnel and vehicles in potentially hostile environments. Their tasks directly address the main threats encountered on such routes: direct attack (ambush) and hidden explosives (mines/IEDs). Maintaining security until the convoy is clear ensures the effectiveness of the route sanitization.

While establishing an observation post, several precautions are taken. Which one of the following is not one of them ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Select a place from where you can see everything without being seen yourself” option2=”The observation post should be lower than the area that is to be observed” option3=”The observation post should be at a point where it can be reached easily and from where you can move out quickly” option4=”The observation post should be far from the skyline” correct=”option2″]

The correct answer is B) The observation post should be lower than the area that is to be observed. This is incorrect; an observation post is typically established on ground that is *higher* than or at least level with the area to be observed to maximize visibility and field of view.

Principles of establishing an observation post (OP) include maximizing observation capabilities while minimizing the risk of detection and ensuring the safety and operational effectiveness of the observer. Key considerations are concealment (seeing without being seen), elevation (for good vantage point), accessibility (for deployment and withdrawal), and avoiding silhouetting against the horizon (skyline).

Option A is a fundamental principle of concealment for an OP. Option C relates to accessibility and safety, which are practical considerations. Option D is crucial for concealment, as being on the skyline makes the observer easily visible. Establishing an OP lower than the observed area would severely restrict the field of vision and is contrary to the purpose.

What intervention plan is activated by a competent authority to counter the possible consequences arising from communicated threat or discovery of an explosive device at an airport ?

[amp_mcq option1=”High alert” option2=”Bomb threat contingency plan” option3=”Counter terror contingency plan” option4=”Red alert” correct=”option2″]

The correct answer is B) Bomb threat contingency plan. This is the specific intervention plan designed to handle situations involving communicated threats or the discovery of explosive devices.

Airport security protocols include specific contingency plans for various types of emergencies. A bomb threat or discovery of an explosive device triggers the activation of a specialized plan tailored to the unique risks and procedures associated with explosives, including search protocols, evacuation procedures, and coordination with bomb disposal experts.

Options A and D (High alert, Red alert) are general alert levels indicating a heightened state of readiness but are not specific intervention *plans*. Option C (Counter terror contingency plan) is broader and might include bomb threats, but the most direct and specific plan for an explosive device scenario is the “Bomb threat contingency plan”.

On which one of the following grounds can monetary rewards not be granted as per the provisions of the Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001?

[amp_mcq option1=”Arrest of a criminal” option2=”Making exceptionally good enquiries” option3=”Doing general good work” option4=”Doing extra hard work in connection with the protection, safeguard and security of an industrial undertaking” correct=”option3″]

The correct answer is C) Doing general good work. While good work is expected, monetary rewards as per the Rules are typically granted for specific, exceptional acts or performance, not for merely ‘general’ good work.

Rule 88 of the Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001 outlines the grounds for granting rewards. These grounds include specific actions like acts of gallantry, exceptional good work, extraordinary work in handling difficult situations, detecting serious crimes, making valuable suggestions, etc. ‘General good work’ is too vague to be a specific criterion for a monetary reward under these rules.

The other options describe specific achievements or efforts: A) Arrest of a criminal (detecting serious crime), B) Making exceptionally good enquiries (exceptional good work), and D) Doing extra hard work related to core duty (extraordinary good work). These align better with the specific criteria listed for granting rewards.

Which one of the following is not one of the minor penalties prescribed in the Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001?

[amp_mcq option1=”Withholding of promotion” option2=”Removal from service which shall not be a disqualification for future employment under the Government” option3=”Withholding of increment of pay” option4=”Fine of an amount not exceeding seven days’ pay” correct=”option2″]

The correct answer is B) Removal from service which shall not be a disqualification for future employment under the Government. This penalty, even with the caveat, falls under the category of major penalties in the Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001, not minor ones.

Rule 34 of the Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001 lists the penalties. Minor penalties typically include censure, withholding of promotion, reduction to a lower stage in the time scale for a specified period, and withholding of increments of pay for a specified period. Major penalties include reduction to a lower grade/post/time scale, compulsory retirement, removal from service, and dismissal from service.

“Removal from service” is explicitly listed as a major penalty in Rule 34 (ix). The description in option B (“which shall not be a disqualification for future employment under the Government”) is a specific type of removal, but it is still a removal from service, which is classified as a major penalty. Options A, C, and D (or similar concepts like specific fines/deductions) are generally considered minor penalties.

Which one of the following is not correct in relation to an order of suspension of an enrolled member of the Central Industrial Security Force?

[amp_mcq option1=”An enrolled member of the Force is deemed to have been placed under suspension by an order of the appointing authority with effect from the date of detention if he/she is detained in custody, whether on a criminal charge or otherwise, for a period exceeding 48 hours.” option2=”An order of suspension made or deemed to have been made continues to remain in force until it is modified or revoked by the authority competent to do so.” option3=”An order of suspension made or deemed to have been made can be modified or revoked at any time by any authority to which the authority who had issued the order of suspension is subordinate.” option4=”An enrolled member cannot be kept under suspension for more than 180 days.” correct=”option4″]

Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001, Rule 32 deals with suspension. While Rule 32(6) mandates periodic review of suspension orders (before 90 days and subsequently before 180 days from the date of extension), it does not prescribe an absolute maximum period like 180 days for the entire duration of suspension. Suspension can continue beyond 180 days, subject to timely reviews by the competent authority or a review committee. Therefore, the statement that an enrolled member cannot be kept under suspension for more than 180 days is incorrect.

CISF Rules require periodic review of suspension orders but do not impose an absolute upper limit of 180 days on the total duration of suspension.

Options A, B, and C are consistent with the provisions of Rule 32 of the CISF Rules, 2001. Deemed suspension after 48 hours in custody is covered by Rule 32(2)(a). The continuation and modification/revocation of suspension orders by the competent authority or a superior authority are covered by Rule 32(5).