The Governance System

41. Which one of the following ministries of the Government of India has t

Which one of the following ministries of the Government of India has taken a significant step towards promoting cleanliness and environmental sustainability by launching Swachhata Pakhwada ?

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Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Ministry of Rural Development
This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
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Swachhata Pakhwada is an initiative under the Swachh Bharat Mission, where ministries/departments observe a fortnight of intensive cleanliness-related activities. Among the given options, the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD) is closely associated with rural sanitation under Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (Gramin), which is a major component of the mission.
Swachhata Pakhwada aims to bring focus on Swachhata activities in various sectors, with each ministry/department participating actively.
The concept of Swachhata Pakhwada was introduced in April 2016. While all ministries and departments observe Swachhata Pakhwada, the Ministry of Rural Development, through its role in rural sanitation (historically via Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation, now part of Ministry of Jal Shakti, with MoRD overseeing rural development initiatives), has a significant stake and often conducts widespread activities under this initiative, particularly relating to rural areas. Other ministries like MoEFCC, MoHFW, etc., also observe it focusing on their specific domains. Given the options, MoRD’s connection to rural sanitation makes it a plausible intended answer.

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42. Border Roads Organization comes under which one of the following minis

Border Roads Organization comes under which one of the following ministries of the Government of India ?

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Ministry of Civil Aviation
Ministry of Earth Sciences
Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
Ministry of Defence
This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
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The Border Roads Organization (BRO) is a statutory body operating under the ownership of the Ministry of Defence.
BRO is responsible for road construction and maintenance in India’s border areas and friendly neighboring countries.
While BRO primarily serves the armed forces’ strategic needs, it also contributes significantly to the socio-economic development of border regions. It was formed in 1960 and plays a crucial role in improving infrastructure in difficult terrains along India’s frontiers.

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43. Consider the following statements: 1. The Ministry of Law and Justi

Consider the following statements:

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  • 1. The Ministry of Law and Justice comprises three departments, namely the Department of Legal Affairs, the Legislative Department and the Department of Justice.
  • 2. The Indian Legal System comprises four components, namely the basic values and principles enshrined in the constitution; rights and obligations conferred by ordinary statutes; organizational set-up to enforce these rights and obligations within the constitutional norms; and the legal and judicial personnel.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

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1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2021-22
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The correct answer is C, as both statements are correct.
Statement 1 accurately describes the organizational structure of the Ministry of Law and Justice in India, which is indeed composed of the Department of Legal Affairs, the Legislative Department, and the Department of Justice. Statement 2 provides a valid description of the components of the Indian legal system, encompassing the foundational principles (Constitution), the legal framework (statutes/rights and obligations), the institutional structure for enforcement, and the human resources (legal and judicial personnel) who operate within the system.
The Department of Legal Affairs advises the various Ministries/Departments of the Central Government on legal matters. The Legislative Department is concerned with drafting principal legislation for the Central Government. The Department of Justice is responsible for the administration of justice, including the appointment of judges and administrative support for the judiciary. Statement 2 describes the legal system in terms of its various interconnected elements necessary for its functioning.

44. Which one of the following is not a feature of a federal system of Gov

Which one of the following is not a feature of a federal system of Government ?

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Division of powers between the Central and State Governments
A written Constitution
Single citizenship
Bicameral legislature
This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2021-22
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The correct answer is C) Single citizenship.
A federal system is characterised by features such as the division of powers between different levels of government, a written constitution to define this division, the supremacy of the constitution, independent judiciary, and often a bicameral legislature (where one house represents the units of the federation). Single citizenship is a characteristic of the Indian federal system (which has unitary biases) but is not a defining or universal feature of all federal systems. Many classical federal states like the USA have dual citizenship (citizenship of the federation and citizenship of the state).
India’s Constitution, while federal in structure with division of powers, written constitution, etc., incorporates several unitary features, including single citizenship, a strong centre, single integrated judiciary, and emergency provisions.

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45. Which one of the following is not correct pertaining to the eligibilit

Which one of the following is not correct pertaining to the eligibility for the appointment of the Chief of Defence Staff in India?

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An officer must be either serving or retired Lieutenant General
An officer must be either serving or retired Air Marshal
An officer must be either serving or retired Vice Admiral
An officer must be either serving or retired JCO ranks
This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20
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The correct option is D. An officer must be either serving or retired JCO ranks is not correct pertaining to the eligibility for the appointment of the Chief of Defence Staff in India.
– The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) is a four-star officer who is the head of the Indian Armed Forces, serving as the principal military advisor to the Defence Minister and head of the Department of Military Affairs.
– The government notified the eligibility criteria for the appointment of the CDS in 2022.
– As per the rules, any serving or retired Lieutenant General, Air Marshal, or Vice Admiral (and equivalent ranks in the Army, Air Force, and Navy respectively) who is below the age of 62 years at the time of appointment is eligible.
– The retirement age for CDS is 65 years.
– Lieutenant General, Air Marshal, and Vice Admiral are three-star ranks.
– Junior Commissioned Officers (JCOs) are a separate class of officers in the Indian military, ranking above Non-Commissioned Officers (NCOs) and below Commissioned Officers. They are not eligible for the highest ranks like CDS.
The first CDS was General Bipin Rawat. The CDS position was created to bring synergy among the three services (Army, Navy, and Air Force) and act as the single point of contact for the government on military matters.

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46. Consider the following statements about the ‘Agniveer’ scheme for Indi

Consider the following statements about the ‘Agniveer’ scheme for Indian youth to serve in the armed forces :

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  • 1. Aspirants will be appointed on the contract basis for a period of four years.
  • 2. Young people in the age group of 18-22 years can join.
  • 3. The age limit was later increased to 23 years for the first batch of the aspirants.
  • 4. Up to 20% of each batch will be enrolled as regular cadre.

Which of the above statements are not correct?

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1 and 2
2 and 3
1 and 4
2 and 4
This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20
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The correct option is D. Statements 2 and 4 are not correct about the ‘Agniveer’ scheme (Agnipath scheme).
– The Agnipath scheme recruits personnel below the rank of commissioned officers into the three services of the Indian Armed Forces. Recruits under this scheme are known as ‘Agniveers’.
– Statement 1: Aspirants will be appointed on the contract basis for a period of four years. This is correct. Agniveers are enrolled for a service period of four years, which includes training period.
– Statement 2: Young people in the age group of 18-22 years can join. This is incorrect. The eligible age range for prospective Agniveers is 17.5 years to 21 years.
– Statement 3: The age limit was later increased to 23 years for the first batch of the aspirants. This is correct. Due to protests and considering the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic on recruitment, the government announced a one-time relaxation in the upper age limit to 23 years for the recruitment cycle of 2022.
– Statement 4: Up to 20% of each batch will be enrolled as regular cadre. This is incorrect. After the completion of the four-year tenure, up to 25% of each batch of Agniveers may be absorbed into the regular cadre based on organizational requirements and their performance during the four years.
The Agnipath scheme aims to create a youthful profile of the Armed Forces and provides an opportunity for youth to serve the country. Those not absorbed into the regular cadre after four years will receive a ‘Seva Nidhi’ package and skills certifications to help them in civilian life.

47. Which one of the following actions/decisions/declarations has not been

Which one of the following actions/decisions/declarations has not been treated final under the Constitution of India?

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Dispensation of an enquiry into the misconduct of a civil servant on the ground that it was not practicable to hold the enquiry
A declaration made in a law made by the Parliament that it was for giving effect to the Directive Principle relating to economic system with a view to control concentration of wealth
Advice tendered by the Ministers to the President of India
Decision of the Speaker of the House of the People regarding disqualification of a member of that House on the ground of defection
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UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20
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The declaration made in a law made by the Parliament that it was for giving effect to the Directive Principle relating to economic system with a view to control concentration of wealth (under Article 31C) has not been treated final under the Constitution as interpreted by the Supreme Court.
A) Dispensation of enquiry into civil servant misconduct (Article 311(2) proviso): The grounds for dispensing enquiry are subject to judicial review, thus not treated final.
B) A declaration made in a law under Article 31C (regarding 39(b)/(c)): The 25th Amendment Act added Article 31C, which included a clause stating that a declaration by Parliament that a law is for giving effect to Article 39(b) or (c) shall not be called in question in any court. However, the Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills case (1980) held that judicial review is a basic feature of the Constitution and struck down this finality clause. Therefore, the declaration is not treated as final; courts can examine if the law has a direct and reasonable nexus with the DPSP it seeks to implement.
C) Advice tendered by the Ministers to the President (Article 74(2)): Article 74(2) explicitly states that the question of whether any, and if so what, advice was tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into by any court. This means the *content* of the advice is treated as final and non-justiciable by courts.
D) Decision of the Speaker regarding disqualification on the ground of defection (10th Schedule, Para 6): The 52nd Amendment Act (10th Schedule) initially stated that the Speaker’s decision on disqualification due to defection is final. However, the Supreme Court in the Kihoto Hollohan case (1993) ruled that the Speaker’s decision under the Tenth Schedule is subject to judicial review on grounds of mala fide, perversity, etc., thus not treated final.
Among the options where finality was intended by law but overturned by courts (B and D), option B directly refers to a legislative *declaration* whose finality was specifically challenged and removed by the Supreme Court’s interpretation of the basic structure doctrine, making it a prime example of something not treated final despite legislative intent. Option C is explicitly made final by the Constitution itself regarding court inquiry into advice content. Option A is administrative action subject to standard judicial review of grounds.

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48. Which one of the following is not a wing of Cabinet Secretariat?

Which one of the following is not a wing of Cabinet Secretariat?

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Civil wing
Military wing
Administrative wing
Intelligence wing
This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20
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‘Administrative wing’ is not listed as one of the distinct wings of the Cabinet Secretariat.
– The Cabinet Secretariat comprises the Main Office, Military Wing, Intelligence Wing, and Security Wing.
– While administrative functions are integral to the Cabinet Secretariat’s operations, “Administrative wing” is not a formally designated distinct wing alongside the others.
The Cabinet Secretariat provides secretarial assistance to the Union Cabinet and its Committees and coordinates the work of the Ministries/Departments of the Government of India.

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49. In the National Capital Region, on which one of the following metro ra

In the National Capital Region, on which one of the following metro rail lines is CISF cover not provided?

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Blue Line
Aqua Line
Magenta Line
Airport Express Line
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2024
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The correct option is B) Aqua Line. CISF provides security cover to the Delhi Metro network operated by DMRC (Delhi Metro Rail Corporation), which includes the Blue Line, Magenta Line, and Airport Express Line. The Aqua Line connects Noida and Greater Noida and is operated by the Noida Metro Rail Corporation (NMRC). Security on the Aqua Line is handled by the Uttar Pradesh Provincial Armed Constabulary (PAC) and private security personnel, not CISF.
CISF is responsible for the security of vital installations including major metro networks in India, but their jurisdiction is tied to the operating authority (like DMRC). The Aqua Line falls under a different operating authority (NMRC) and is secured by state forces and private agencies.
CISF has been providing security to the Delhi Metro since 2007. They are responsible for access control, frisking, patrolling stations and trains, and responding to security threats across the DMRC network.

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50. As per the MHA notification, which one among the following is not a

As per the MHA notification, which one among the following is not a CAPF?

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SSB
NSG
Assam Rifles
SPG
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2024
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The correct option is D) SPG. As per the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) classification, the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) typically include the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Border Security Force (BSF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB), Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), and Assam Rifles. The Special Protection Group (SPG) is a separate, highly specialized force dedicated to VVIP protection and is not categorized as a CAPF.
CAPFs are a group of paramilitary forces under the MHA with diverse roles like border guarding, internal security, counter-insurgency, and critical infrastructure security. NSG is a specialized counter-terrorism unit under MHA, sometimes listed alongside CAPFs, but SPG is generally treated as distinct due to its specific VVIP protection mandate.
SSB is a border guarding force. NSG is a counter-terrorism force. Assam Rifles is a border guarding and counter-insurgency force, with unique operational control by the Army. SPG’s sole mandate is the proximate security of the Prime Minister and their immediate family.

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