The Governance System

91. Consider the following statements: 2. The role of the Home Guards is

Consider the following statements:

  • 2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
  • 3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”Only one” option2=”Only two” option3=”All three” option4=”None” correct=”option2″]

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The correct answer is B) Only two.
Statement 2 is correct: The Home Guards is a voluntary auxiliary force established under the Home Guards Act, 1960. Its role is to serve as an auxiliary to the police force and assist in maintaining internal security, aiding the administration in emergencies, and performing other duties as assigned.
Statement 3 is correct: Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in border states like Punjab, Rajasthan, Gujarat, West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Jammu & Kashmir to prevent infiltration on the international border and coastal areas, working alongside central and state forces.
Assuming the question intended to ask about the correctness of the provided statements 2 and 3, both are factually correct descriptions of the Home Guards’ roles.
The Home Guards organization is a volunteer citizen force that supplements the regular police force and renders services in times of emergency. They are raised in States and Union Territories under the Home Guards Act.

92. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following stateme

With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements :

  • 1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
  • 2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option2″]

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The correct answer is B) 2 only.
Statement 2 is correct. The Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) headed by Morarji Desai submitted its report in 1966. One of its key recommendations was the creation of a Department of Personnel. This Department was constituted in 1970 and placed under the direct charge of the Prime Minister to underscore the importance of personnel administration.
Statement 1 is incorrect. While the N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee (1949) made significant recommendations for the reorganisation of the central government machinery and administrative improvements, the specific suggestion of designating a minister and a secretary solely for administrative reform and promoting it is not primarily associated with this committee. Various mechanisms for overseeing administrative reforms have been suggested and implemented over time, often involving departments under the Prime Minister or Cabinet Secretariat.
The Department of Personnel was later merged with the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances to form the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), which remains a key body under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, reporting to the Prime Minister.

93. We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how

We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model?

  • 1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited.
  • 2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option3″]

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The correct answer is C) Both 1 and 2.
Statement 1 is correct. The British Parliament is considered supreme or sovereign in the sense that there is no codified constitution against which its laws can be tested for validity by the judiciary. In India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited by the written Constitution, Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, federal structure, etc., and its laws are subject to judicial review by the Supreme Court and High Courts.
Statement 2 is correct. According to Article 145(3) of the Constitution of India, any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution or for the purpose of hearing any reference made by the President under Article 143 shall be heard by a Bench consisting of not less than five Judges (a Constitution Bench). Matters relating to the constitutionality of Acts of Parliament or Constitutional Amendments fall under this category and are referred to a Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.
The Indian parliamentary system, while based on the British model, incorporates unique features like judicial review (a strong, independent judiciary with the power to interpret the constitution and strike down laws) and a codified federal constitution, which significantly limit parliamentary sovereignty compared to the UK model.

94. Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of l

Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?

[amp_mcq option1=”A committed judiciary” option2=”Centralization of powers” option3=”Elected government” option4=”Separation of powers” correct=”option4″]

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The correct answer is D) Separation of powers.
– In a liberal democracy, the principle of separation of powers ensures that governmental powers are divided among distinct branches (legislative, executive, and judicial), preventing the concentration of power in any single entity. This system of checks and balances limits the potential for arbitrary rule and protects individual liberties.
– A committed judiciary (A) is essential for upholding liberty, but it is a critical component *within* the framework of separation of powers.
– Centralization of powers (B) is generally detrimental to liberty, leading towards potential authoritarianism.
– An elected government (C) is fundamental to democracy, but without constitutional limits and separation of powers, even an elected body can infringe upon liberties (e.g., tyranny of the majority).
– Thus, separation of powers is considered the foundational principle that best safeguards liberty by distributing authority and establishing checks and balances.

95. Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State’?

Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State’?

[amp_mcq option1=”A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government.” option2=”A politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance.” option3=”A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government” option4=”A society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary.” correct=”option1″]

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The correct answer is A) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government.
– This definition includes the four essential elements that constitute a ‘State’ in political science: a permanent population (community of persons), a defined territory, a government (organized government), and sovereignty (independent of external control).
– Option B describes functions of a state rather than its defining components.
– Option C focuses on cultural and historical aspects (culture, tradition, long residence) more akin to a nation or community than the political entity of a State.
– Option D describes specific governmental structures (central authority, executive responsibility, independent judiciary) and lacks the crucial element of sovereignty.

96. Constitutional government means

Constitutional government means

[amp_mcq option1=”a representative government of a nation with federal structure” option2=”a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers” option3=”a government whose Head enjoys real powers” option4=”a government limited by the terms of the Constitution” correct=”option4″]

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Option D is the correct answer. A constitutional government is fundamentally defined as a government that operates within the limits set by a constitution.
The essence of constitutionalism is that the power of the government is not absolute but is constrained by a supreme law, the constitution. This limits arbitrary rule and protects individual rights and liberties.
Options A, B, and C describe specific features that might be present in a constitutional government (representative, federal, nature of head of state), but they are not the core defining characteristic of a constitutional government itself, which is the limitation of power by a constitution.

97. In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to wh

In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens ?

  1. Person with an annual income of less than ₹ 1,00,000
  2. Transgender with an annual income of less than ₹ 2,00,000
  3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than ₹ 3,00,000
  4. All Senior Citizens

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”3 and 4 only” option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”1 and 4 only” correct=”option1″]

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Legal Services Authorities in India provide free legal services to persons with an annual income of less than ₹1,00,000 and transgender persons with an annual income of less than ₹2,00,000, among other eligible categories.
The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 aims to provide free and competent legal services to eligible persons. Eligible categories specified under the Act and subsequent rules/amendments include persons belonging to Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes, victims of trafficking or begar, women and children, persons with disabilities, persons in custody, industrial workmen, victims of mass disaster, violence, etc., senior citizens, transgender persons, and persons with an annual income below a prescribed limit. The income limit varies from state to state and is revised periodically; ₹1,00,000 per annum is a plausible limit for the general category in some states. Transgender persons are a specific category, and eligibility often includes an income threshold; ₹2,00,000 is a plausible limit in some states. OBC status alone is not a criterion for free legal aid, although an OBC person could be eligible based on income or other criteria (woman, senior citizen, etc.). While Senior Citizens are an eligible category, the statement “All Senior Citizens” is incorrect as income limits may apply in some states, although often set higher than the general category or exempted for very elderly citizens. Based on the specific statements and typical eligibility criteria, statements 1 and 2 describe plausible eligible categories, while 3 (OBC based) and 4 (“All Senior Citizens” implying no income test) are generally incorrect as presented.
The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) and State Legal Services Authorities (SLSAs) implement the provisions of the Act. The specific income limits are determined by the State Governments, except for the Supreme Court Legal Services Committee, which sets its own limit. The categories listed under Section 12 of the Act ensure that vulnerable sections of society have access to justice. The inclusion of transgender persons as a specific category for legal aid reflects evolving social awareness and policy.

98. A constitutional government by definition is a

A constitutional government by definition is a

[amp_mcq option1=”government by legislature” option2=”popular government” option3=”multi-party government” option4=”limited government” correct=”option4″]

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A constitutional government by definition is a limited government.
A constitutional government is one whose powers are defined and limited by a constitution. The constitution sets out the framework of government, specifies the powers and duties of its different branches, and often includes provisions that protect individual rights and freedoms, thereby placing limits on governmental authority.
Options A, B, and C describe potential characteristics of certain types of democratic governments but do not define the fundamental nature of a constitutional government. A government by legislature is specific to parliamentary systems. A popular government implies governance based on the will of the people, which is a characteristic of democracy, but not the defining feature of a constitutional government. A multi-party government is a characteristic of many democratic systems but is not essential for a government to be constitutional. The core concept of a constitutional government is that it is bound and limited by the law embodied in the constitution.

99. Consider the following statements: 1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be sto

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
  • 2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data.
  • 3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
  • 4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 4 only” option2=”2 and 4 only” option3=”3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3 only” correct=”option2″]

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Statement 1: According to UIDAI regulations (Aadhaar Authentication Regulations, 2016), authentication transaction logs are retained for 5 years, not 3 months. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2: Section 29 of the Aadhaar Act, 2016 restricts the sharing of core biometric information. Identity information can be shared only with consent for specific purposes or under court order. The Supreme Court judgment in Puttaswamy case upheld the restrictive nature of the Act regarding data sharing with private entities, emphasizing minimal data collection and use. While private entities can act as Authentication User Agencies (AUAs) or e-KYC User Agencies (KUAs), direct and general “sharing of Aadhaar data” with private corporations is prohibited. Thus, the statement that the State cannot enter into *any* contract for sharing of *Aadhaar data* (interpreted as general data sharing beyond permitted authentication/KYC processes under strict rules) with private corporations aligns with the law’s intent and judgment, making this statement likely correct in context.
Statement 3: The Supreme Court judgment held that Aadhaar cannot be made mandatory for services unless they are benefits, subsidies, or services funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India (Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act). Insurance products are generally not funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Therefore, making Aadhaar mandatory for obtaining insurance products was ruled unconstitutional by the SC. Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 4: The Supreme Court upheld Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act, which mandates Aadhaar for receiving subsidies, benefits, or services funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Thus, statement 4 is correct.
Based on this analysis, statements 2 and 4 are correct, while 1 and 3 are incorrect.
– Authentication logs are stored for 5 years.
– Sharing of Aadhaar data, especially core biometrics, with private entities is heavily restricted.
– Aadhaar cannot be mandatory for services not funded by the Consolidated Fund of India (like insurance).
– Aadhaar can be mandatory for benefits/services funded by the Consolidated Fund of India.
The Supreme Court’s judgment on Aadhaar in the Puttaswamy case (2018) significantly curtailed the mandatory use of Aadhaar, limiting it primarily to schemes receiving funds from the Consolidated Fund of India. It also reinforced data protection principles and restrictions on sharing.

100. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which

A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which

[amp_mcq option1=”all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government” option2=”the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it” option3=”the Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them” option4=”the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term” correct=”option2″]

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The correct answer is B) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it.
A Parliamentary System of Government is characterized by a close relationship between the executive (Government) and the legislature (Parliament). The executive is formed from within the legislature and remains accountable to it.
Option B correctly describes the core principle of responsible government in a parliamentary system: the Council of Ministers (Government) is collectively responsible to the Lower House of Parliament (e.g., Lok Sabha in India). If the Government loses the confidence of the majority in Parliament, it can be removed through a vote of no-confidence.
Option A is incorrect because a government in a parliamentary system might be a coalition or a single-party majority; it doesn’t necessarily include *all* political parties. Option C describes aspects more typical of a presidential system, where the executive is directly elected by the people. Option D is incorrect because the Government *can* be removed by Parliament before the completion of its term.
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