The Centre-State Relations Archives

21. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider

With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements :

1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country.
2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 3 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2019

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Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Statement 1 is correct. The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act, 1957) defines ‘minor minerals’. Section 3(e) of the Act lists several minerals as minor minerals, including building stones, gravel, ordinary clay, ordinary sand other than sand used for prescribed purposes, and any other mineral which the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, declare to be a minor mineral. Ordinary sand is explicitly included.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Section 15 of the MMDR Act, 1957, empowers State Governments to make rules for regulating the grant of quarry leases, mining leases or other mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals and for purposes connected therewith. This includes the power to frame rules related to the grant of leases. The Central Government’s rule-making power under Section 14 applies only to minerals *other than* minor minerals.

Statement 3 is correct. Section 23C of the MMDR Act, 1957, empowers State Governments to make rules for preventing illegal mining, transportation and storage of minor minerals and for the purposes connected therewith.

The management and regulation of minor minerals fall primarily under the jurisdiction of State Governments, including making rules for their grant, regulating leases, and preventing illegal mining. Major minerals are regulated by the Central Government under the MMDR Act, 1957, though states play a significant role in their administration as well.

22. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

[amp_mcq option1=”There is an independent judiciary in India.” option2=”Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.” option3=”The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.” option4=”It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.” correct=”option4″]

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UPSC IAS – 2017

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The correct answer is D. Indian federalism is characterized by features such as an independent judiciary, a clear division of powers between the Centre and States (listed in the Seventh Schedule), and unequal representation of states in the Rajya Sabha (based on population). However, it is not a result of an agreement among the federating units; India is described as a ‘Union of States’, indicating that the states did not come together to form the federation but rather the Union is indissoluble.

– Indian federation is not formed by an agreement among states.
– India is a ‘Union of States’.
– Key features of Indian federalism include distribution of powers, independent judiciary, and bicameralism (with unequal representation in Rajya Sabha).

The Indian federal system is often described as ‘quasi-federal’ or ‘federal in form but unitary in spirit’. Unlike classic federations like the USA, states in India have no right to secede, and the boundaries of states can be altered by Parliament.

23. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in

The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the

[amp_mcq option1=”Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership” option2=”Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership” option3=”Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership” option4=”Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting” correct=”option4″]

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UPSC IAS – 2016

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According to Article 249 of the Indian Constitution, if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting, declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest for Parliament to legislate on any matter enumerated in the State List, Parliament acquires the power to make laws on that matter.

This provision allows the Parliament to encroach upon the legislative domain of states under specific circumstances deemed to be in the national interest, initiated by the Rajya Sabha (Council of States), which represents the states.

Such a resolution remains in force for a period specified in the resolution, not exceeding one year. Laws made by Parliament under this provision cease to have effect six months after the resolution ceases to be in force, though acts done or omitted before the expiration remain valid. This power is distinct from Parliament’s power to legislate on State List subjects during a Proclamation of Emergency (Article 250) or with the consent of states (Article 252).

24. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

[amp_mcq option1=”Courts can interpret the Constitution and powers of different levels of the Government.” option2=”Sources of revenue for the Union Government and the State Governments are specified.” option3=”Powers of the Union and the States are specified in the Constitution.” option4=”Indian federalism is based on the principle of Separation of Powers.” correct=”option4″]

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UPSC CAPF – 2022

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Indian federalism is characterized by features like the division of powers between the Union and States (specified in the Constitution), specified sources of revenue, and the judiciary’s role in interpreting the Constitution and resolving disputes between different levels of government. The principle of Separation of Powers, while important for the functioning of the government, primarily deals with the division of powers *among* the legislature, executive, and judiciary *within* a level of government, not the division of powers *between* different levels (Union and States), which is the core of federalism.

Federalism involves the division of powers between a central government and regional governments. Key features include a written constitution, division of powers, supremacy of the constitution, independent judiciary, and dual government polity. Separation of powers is about checks and balances between governmental branches.

India has a quasi-federal structure with a strong center, but it retains essential features of federalism. Options A, B, and C are indeed characteristics of the Indian federal system. The division of powers is enshrined in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution (Union List, State List, Concurrent List).

25. Which of the following statement(s) regarding passing a law under the

Which of the following statement(s) regarding passing a law under the State List is/are correct ?

1. Even in the sphere (State List) exclusively reserved for the States, Parliament can legislate under certain circumstances
2. Parliament cannot legislate a subject under the State List under any circumstances
3. A resolution supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting is required to be passed by Rajya Sabha to pass a law under the State List

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 2 and 3″ option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”1 only” correct=”option3″]

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UPSC CAPF – 2020

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The correct option is C.

Statement 1 is correct: Parliament can legislate on State List subjects under certain exceptional circumstances, such as when the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest (Article 249), during a Proclamation of Emergency (Article 250), when two or more states request Parliament to legislate on a State subject for them (Article 252), or for implementing international treaties (Article 253).
Statement 2 is incorrect: As explained above, Parliament can legislate on State List subjects under specific circumstances.
Statement 3 is correct: Article 249 allows Parliament to legislate on a State List subject if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, declaring it necessary or expedient in the national interest for Parliament to do so.

Laws made by Parliament under Article 249 remain in force for a specified period (up to one year at a time), while those under Article 250 are valid during the Emergency. Laws under Article 252 apply only to the states which have requested the legislation, and any other state which adopts it subsequently. Laws under Article 253 are made to give effect to international agreements or conventions.

26. As per provisions of the Constitution of India, which one of the follo

As per provisions of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Only Parliament has the power to legislate over a subject under the Concurrent List” option2=”Both Parliament and State Legislatures have the power to legislate over a subject under the Concurrent List” option3=”A legislation made under the Concurrent List by Parliament should be ratified by half of the State Legislatures so as to become a law of the country” option4=”Only State Legislatures are empowered to make laws under Concurrent List” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2020

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The correct option is B.

The Constitution of India places subjects under three lists: Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. The Union List contains subjects on which only the Parliament can legislate. The State List contains subjects on which only the State Legislatures can legislate under normal circumstances. The Concurrent List contains subjects on which both the Parliament and the State Legislatures can legislate.

Article 246 of the Constitution deals with the subject matter of laws made by Parliament and by the Legislatures of States, specifying the subjects in the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. In case of a conflict between a central law and a state law on a subject in the Concurrent List, the central law generally prevails (Article 254), unless the state law has received the assent of the President.

27. In relation to the powers of the Union Government of India, which one

In relation to the powers of the Union Government of India, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”The Government of India may undertake legislative functions of a territory outside of India by agreement with the Government of that territory” option2=”The Union Government may not entrust a State Government with functions over matters where executive power of the Union extends” option3=”The Union Government may direct States for construction and maintenance of means of communication of military importance” option4=”The Governor may, with consent of Government of India, entrust its officers with functions on matters which fall within the executive power of the State” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2020

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Statement B is incorrect. Article 258(1) of the Constitution explicitly states that the President may, with the consent of the Government of a State, entrust either conditionally or unconditionally to that Government or to its officers functions in relation to any matter to which the executive power of the Union extends. This provision allows the Union Government to delegate executive functions to the states.

Articles 256 to 263 in Part XI of the Constitution deal with administrative relations between the Union and the States. They provide for cooperation and distribution of executive functions. Article 258 and Article 258A allow for the mutual entrustment of functions between the Union and the States with their respective consents.

Statement A is correct based on Article 260, which deals with the Union’s jurisdiction over territories outside India. Statement C is correct based on Article 257(2), which allows the Union to give directions to states regarding means of communication of national or military importance. Statement D is a slightly confusing phrasing but likely refers to the State’s power under Article 258A (inserted by the 7th Amendment), which states that a State may, with the consent of the Government of India, entrust to the Union Government or its officers functions in relation to any matter to which the executive power of the State extends. This is a State’s power, not a Union’s power *over* states, but B is a clear misstatement about a specific power the Union possesses.

28. Which of the following pairs of list and contents is/are correctly mat

Which of the following pairs of list and contents is/are correctly matched ?

1. State list : Public health and sanitation
2. Union list : Citizenship, naturalisation and aliens
3. Concurrent list : Legal, medical and other professions

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”1, 2 and 3″ option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”3 only” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2019

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All three pairs listed are correctly matched according to the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, which distributes legislative powers between the Union and States through the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.

– The Seventh Schedule contains three lists: Union List (subjects on which Parliament can legislate), State List (subjects on which State Legislatures can legislate), and Concurrent List (subjects on which both can legislate).
– Public health and sanitation is explicitly mentioned in the State List.
– Citizenship, naturalisation, and aliens are exclusively under the Union List.
– Legal, medical, and other professions are listed in the Concurrent List, allowing both the Parliament and State Legislatures to legislate on these matters.

Entry 6 of the State List deals with “Public health and sanitation; hospitals and dispensaries.” Entry 17 of the Union List covers “Citizenship, naturalisation and aliens.” Entry 26 of the Concurrent List covers “Legal, medical and other professions.”

29. The federal systems of India and the USA are different in all the foll

The federal systems of India and the USA are different in all the following respects, except

[amp_mcq option1=”State’s representation in the Upper House” option2=”dual citizenship” option3=”dual system of Courts” option4=”dual Government” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2018

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Both India and the USA have a dual government system, meaning there is a government at the central/federal level and governments at the state level. This is a characteristic of a federal system and is present in both countries. Therefore, it is not a difference between the two federal systems.

A dual government system is a fundamental feature of federalism, present in both the Indian and US political structures.

A) State’s representation in the Upper House (Rajya Sabha in India, Senate in USA) is different: based on population in India, equal (two per state) in USA. B) Citizenship is different: single in India, generally dual (federal and state citizenship, and potentially citizenship of another country) in the USA. C) The judicial system is different: integrated in India, dual (separate federal and state court systems) in the USA.

30. Government of which one of the following States has appointed the Raja

Government of which one of the following States has appointed the Rajamannar Committee to study the Centre-State relations ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Government of Andhra Pradesh” option2=”Government of Karnataka” option3=”Government of Maharashtra” option4=”Government of Tamil Nadu” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2017

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The Government of Tamil Nadu appointed the Rajamannar Committee to study the Centre-State relations.

The Tamil Nadu government, under the Chief Ministership of M. Karunanidhi (DMK party), constituted a three-member committee in 1969 under the chairmanship of Dr. P.V. Rajamannar to examine the entire question of Centre-State relations and suggest amendments to the Constitution for securing ‘full autonomy’ to the States. The Committee submitted its report in 1971.

The Rajamannar Committee made several recommendations aimed at strengthening the autonomy of the states, including the abolition of the IAS, IPS, and IFS as All India Services, placing residuary powers with the states, and establishing an Inter-State Council. While many recommendations were not accepted by the Central Government, the report significantly contributed to the debate on Centre-State relations in India.