31. Consider the following markets: 1. Government Bond Market 2. Call Mone

Consider the following markets:
1. Government Bond Market
2. Call Money Market
3. Treasury Bill Market
4. Stock Market
How many of the above are included in capital markets?

Only one
Only two
Only three
All four
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2023
Financial markets are broadly categorized into money markets and capital markets. Money markets deal with short-term instruments, typically with a maturity of one year or less, used for managing short-term liquidity needs. Capital markets deal with long-term instruments, including equity (shares) and debt with maturities greater than one year, used for long-term financing and investment.

1. **Government Bond Market:** Government bonds (like G-Secs) are typically issued with maturities ranging from 1 year to 30 years or even more. These are long-term debt instruments, making the government bond market a part of the **capital market**.
2. **Call Money Market:** This is a market where banks lend to and borrow from each other for very short periods, typically overnight or up to 14 days, to meet their reserve requirements. This is a part of the **money market**.
3. **Treasury Bill Market:** Treasury Bills (T-Bills) are short-term debt instruments issued by the government with maturities of less than one year (currently 91, 182, and 364 days in India). The T-Bill market is a part of the **money market**.
4. **Stock Market:** The stock market deals with equity shares, which represent ownership in a company. Shares are perpetual instruments and represent long-term capital for the company. The stock market is a part of the **capital market**.

Based on this classification, the Government Bond Market (1) and the Stock Market (4) are included in capital markets. This is a total of two markets.

– Capital markets deal with long-term financial instruments (equity and debt > 1 year).
– Money markets deal with short-term financial instruments (debt ≤ 1 year).
– Government Bonds and Stocks are long-term instruments traded in capital markets.
– Call Money and Treasury Bills are short-term instruments traded in money markets.
The capital market facilitates the mobilization of savings for long-term investments by corporations and governments. The money market provides liquidity to the financial system and facilitates the implementation of monetary policy.

32. Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is

Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of ‘sterilization’?

Conducting 'Open Market Operations'
Oversight of settlement and payment systems
Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments
Regulating the functions of Non-banking Financial Institutions
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2023
Sterilization, in the context of central banking, refers to actions taken by the central bank to offset the impact of its interventions in the foreign exchange market on the domestic money supply. When a central bank buys foreign currency to prevent its appreciation (or sells to prevent depreciation), it either injects domestic currency (when buying foreign currency) or withdraws it (when selling foreign currency) from the banking system, thereby affecting the domestic money supply. To sterilize this effect, the central bank conducts offsetting operations in the domestic money market. The most common tool used for sterilization is Open Market Operations (OMO). For example, if the RBI buys dollars, it pays rupees, increasing liquidity. To sterilize this, RBI sells government securities in the open market, absorbing rupees and withdrawing the excess liquidity.
– Sterilization is a monetary policy tool used by central banks.
– Its purpose is to neutralize the impact of foreign exchange interventions on domestic money supply.
– The primary tool used for sterilization is Open Market Operations (buying or selling government securities).
Other options are not related to sterilization: Oversight of settlement and payment systems is a regulatory function. Debt and cash management for the government is agency work performed by the RBI, not monetary policy per se. Regulating NBFCs is part of the RBI’s supervisory role.

33. Consider the following statements : Statement-I: In the post-pandemi

Consider the following statements :

  • Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.
  • Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2023
Statement-I asserts that many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes in the post-pandemic recent past. This is correct. Following the initial phase of the COVID-19 pandemic which saw accommodative monetary policies, rising inflation globally prompted major central banks (like the US Federal Reserve, European Central Bank, Reserve Bank of India, etc.) to significantly increase policy interest rates starting from late 2021/early 2022 to curb inflationary pressures.

Statement-II states that Central Banks generally assume they have the ability to counteract rising consumer prices via monetary policy means. This is also correct. Controlling inflation and maintaining price stability is one of the primary mandates of most central banks. Monetary policy tools, such as adjusting interest rates, managing liquidity through open market operations, and setting reserve requirements, are designed specifically to influence aggregate demand and inflation. Central banks operate based on the assumption that these tools can effectively manage inflation, although the degree and speed of impact can vary.

Statement-II provides the fundamental reason why central banks resort to actions like interest rate hikes (as mentioned in Statement-I) when faced with rising consumer prices. They raise rates because they believe this monetary policy tool can help bring down inflation. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

– Statement-I correctly describes the global trend of central banks raising interest rates post-pandemic.
– Statement-II correctly describes the core belief of central banks that monetary policy can be used to combat inflation.
– Statement-II explains the rationale behind the action described in Statement-I (raising rates to fight rising prices).
Post-pandemic inflation was driven by a complex mix of factors including supply chain disruptions, energy price shocks, and strong consumer demand supported by fiscal stimulus. Central banks primarily responded by tightening monetary policy, with interest rate hikes being the most prominent tool, based on the Phillips curve relationship (though debated) and the understanding that higher borrowing costs reduce economic activity and inflationary pressure.

34. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Interest income from

Consider the following statements:

  • Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.
  • Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2023
Statement-I claims that interest income from InvIT deposits distributed to investors is exempted from tax, but dividend is taxable. This is incorrect as per current tax laws in India applicable to InvITs/REITs. Distributions from InvITs are taxed in the hands of the unit holders based on the nature of income received by the SPV/Trust. Interest income distributed by the InvIT is generally taxable for the unit holder. Dividend income distributed by the InvIT out of taxable income of the SPV is also taxable for the unit holder. Dividend distributed out of exempt income of the SPV is exempt. Therefore, the statement that interest income is exempt is incorrect.

Statement-II states that InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’ (SARFAESI Act, 2002). InvITs and their underlying Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs) often borrow funds to finance their infrastructure projects. When they borrow from banks or financial institutions against their assets, they become borrowers. If they default, the lenders can enforce security interests under the SARFAESI Act, which applies to loans secured by immovable assets. Thus, InvITs (or their SPVs through which assets are held) are considered borrowers under the purview of the SARFAESI Act. This statement is correct.

– Statement-I is incorrect regarding the tax exemption of interest income distributed by InvITs; interest is typically taxable.
– Statement-II is correct as InvITs/SPVs borrowing funds can fall under the purview of the SARFAESI Act as borrowers.
– Since Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct, option D is the correct choice.
The tax treatment of InvIT distributions has evolved. As of recent provisions (post-Budget 2020), distributions are taxed at the investor level based on their underlying character (interest, dividend, or capital repayment). Interest distributions are taxable at applicable rates. Dividend distributions are taxable if they come from the SPV’s taxable income, otherwise, they are exempt. Capital repayments are generally exempt. The SARFAESI Act empowers banks and financial institutions to recover non-performing loans without court intervention by dealing with secured assets, and entities borrowing against such assets, including those held by InvITs or their SPVs, fall under its definition of a borrower.

35. “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related t

“Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following ?

Asian Development Bank
International Monetary Fund
United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative
World Bank
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
The “Rapid Financing Instrument” (RFI) and “Rapid Credit Facility” (RCF) are lending instruments provided by the International Monetary Fund (IMF). The RFI provides rapid financial assistance, with limited conditionality, to all member countries facing an urgent balance of payments need. The RCF provides similar assistance to low-income countries. These facilities are designed for situations where a full-fledged IMF program with detailed conditionality is not necessary or feasible.
The IMF provides financial assistance to member countries experiencing actual or potential balance of payments problems. RFI and RCF are part of the IMF’s toolkit for rapid disbursal of funds in emergencies.
Other key lending instruments of the IMF include Stand-By Arrangements (SBAs), Extended Fund Facility (EFF), Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust (PRGT) facilities (like ECF, SCF, RSF), etc., which typically involve more extensive conditionality and structural reforms.

36. In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining pr

In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation ?

Department of Consumer Affairs
Expenditure Management Commission
Financial Stability and Development Council
Reserve Bank of India
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
In India, the primary responsibility for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation lies with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
– The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of India and is mandated by the government to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
– The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the RBI is specifically tasked with setting the policy repo rate to achieve the inflation target (currently 4% with a band of +/- 2%).
– Other bodies like the Department of Consumer Affairs might monitor prices of essential commodities, the Expenditure Management Commission deals with government spending, and the Financial Stability and Development Council coordinates financial regulation, but none have the primary mandate and tools for controlling macroeconomic inflation like the RBI does through monetary policy.
The current framework for monetary policy in India is based on a flexible inflation targeting regime adopted in 2016. The RBI uses tools like repo rates, reserve ratios, and open market operations to manage liquidity and influence inflation.

37. With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements

With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements :

  • As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.
  • The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
Statement 1 is correct: Convertible bonds give the holder the option to convert the bond into a specified number of shares of the issuing company’s common stock. Because this conversion option offers potential upside (participation in stock price appreciation), investors are typically willing to accept a lower interest rate (coupon) on a convertible bond compared to a traditional non-convertible bond issued by the same company with similar maturity and risk profile. Statement 2 is incorrect: The option to convert to equity provides potential linkage to the *stock price* performance, not directly to rising consumer prices (inflation). While equity values *can* over the long term reflect or hedge against inflation, the conversion option itself is not a form of indexation to consumer price levels. A CPI-linked bond would provide direct indexation to rising consumer prices.
Convertible bonds are hybrid securities that combine features of both debt (interest payments) and equity (conversion option), offering potential capital appreciation in exchange for a lower yield.
The conversion ratio (number of shares per bond) and conversion price are set at the time of issuance. Investors might convert the bond into stock if the stock price rises significantly above the conversion price, making the value of the stock received upon conversion greater than the bond’s value.

38. Consider the following statements : In India, credit rating agencies

Consider the following statements :

  • In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India.
  • The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
  • Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
Statement 1 is incorrect: In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) under the SEBI (Credit Rating Agencies) Regulations, 1999. The Reserve Bank of India’s role is primarily in prescribing how banks should use these ratings for capital adequacy purposes. Statement 2 is correct: ICRA Limited is indeed a public limited company, listed on Indian stock exchanges. Statement 3 is correct: Brickwork Ratings India Pvt. Ltd. is an Indian credit rating agency, registered with SEBI.
Credit Rating Agencies in India operate under the regulatory purview of SEBI.
Besides ICRA and Brickwork Ratings, other prominent SEBI-registered credit rating agencies in India include CRISIL, CARE Ratings, India Ratings and Research (Ind-Ra), and SMERA Ratings (now Acuité Ratings & Research).

39. Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in it

Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effects?

Repayment of public debt
Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
Borrowing from the banks to finance a budget deficit
Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2021
Financing a budget deficit involves the government covering the gap between its spending and revenue. Different methods have different inflationary potentials:
A) Repayment of public debt: This is paying back outstanding loans. It injects liquidity into the economy but is not a method of financing a *deficit*.
B) Borrowing from the public: The government borrows existing savings from individuals and institutions. This transfers purchasing power from the public to the government, using existing money. It is generally considered the least inflationary method of deficit financing.
C) Borrowing from the banks: Banks can create credit based on their reserves. When the government borrows from banks, it can lead to an expansion of credit and money supply, which is more inflationary than borrowing from the public, but less so than creating new money.
D) Creation of new money (Monetizing the deficit): This involves the central bank directly financing the government deficit, essentially printing new money or crediting the government’s account without a corresponding withdrawal of purchasing power from the economy. This directly increases the money supply and is widely considered the most inflationary method of financing a deficit, as it adds fresh liquidity without increasing the supply of goods and services in the short term.
Financing a deficit by creating new money directly increases the money supply without withdrawing existing purchasing power, making it the most inflationary method compared to borrowing existing funds from the public or banks.
Excessive reliance on deficit monetization can lead to hyperinflation, as seen in several historical cases. Modern central banks often have legal restrictions on direct financing of government deficits to maintain price stability.

40. Indian Government Bond Yields are influenced by which of the following

Indian Government Bond Yields are influenced by which of the following?

  • Actions of the United States Federal Reserve
  • Actions of the Reserve Bank of India
  • Inflation and short-term interest rates

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 and 2 only
2 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2021
Indian Government Bond Yields are influenced by a multitude of factors, both domestic and international. The actions of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), as the central bank, directly impact domestic interest rates through its monetary policy tools like the repo rate, reverse repo rate, and open market operations. These actions significantly shape the domestic yield curve. Inflation expectations play a crucial role, as bond investors demand higher yields to compensate for the loss of purchasing power due to rising prices. Short-term interest rates set by the RBI influence the short end of the yield curve, and expectations about future RBI actions affect longer-term yields. Furthermore, in an interconnected global economy, the actions of major central banks like the United States Federal Reserve have spillover effects. Changes in US interest rates and monetary policy influence global capital flows, investor sentiment towards emerging markets like India, and the relative attractiveness of Indian bonds compared to US Treasury bonds, thereby influencing Indian bond yields.
Bond yields are determined by the interplay of supply and demand for bonds, which is affected by monetary policy (domestic and international), inflation expectations, and overall economic conditions and risk perception.
Other factors influencing bond yields include government borrowing requirements (fiscal policy), credit rating of the sovereign, liquidity in the market, global economic outlook, and geopolitical events.