Miscellaneous

61. Which one of the following may not be awarded as punishment by the sup

Which one of the following may not be awarded as punishment by the supervisory officer to any enrolled member of the CISF who discharges his duties in a careless or negligent manner ?

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Fine amounting to 30 days pay
Deprivation of special emolument
Withholding of promotion
Censure
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023
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Section 8 of the CISF Act, 1968 lists the minor punishments that can be awarded to an enrolled member for careless/negligent duty or rendering himself unfit for duty. These punishments are listed in Section 8 itself: (a) fine not exceeding one month’s pay, (b) punishment drill, extra guard, fatigue or other duty, (c) deprivation of any special emolument, (d) withholding of increment or promotion, (e) reduction to a lower rank or grade or to a lower stage in the time scale of pay. Censure is a common minor punishment in service rules, including the CISF Rules (Rule 30), but it is not explicitly listed among the punishments enumerated in Section 8 of the CISF Act itself. Therefore, Censure may not be awarded *under Section 8* as per the explicit list in the Act, although it is a valid minor punishment awardable under the Rules framed under the Act.
– Section 8 of the CISF Act lists specific minor punishments.
– Censure is defined as a minor punishment in CISF Rules, but not explicitly listed in Section 8 of the Act.
The CISF Rules, 2001, framed under the Act, elaborate on the disciplinary procedure and list minor punishments in Rule 30. Rule 30 includes Censure, Fine (up to one month’s pay), Punishment drill/extra duty, Withholding increment/promotion, Deprivation of emolument, and Reduction to a lower stage. The question specifically asks what may not be awarded *under Section 8* itself. The list in Section 8 does not include Censure.

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62. Which one of the following groups of organisms correctly makes a food

Which one of the following groups of organisms correctly makes a food chain ?

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Grass, Goat, Human
Elephant, Goat, Grass
Tiger, Snake, Grass
Insect, Frog, Grass
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023
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A food chain illustrates the flow of energy in an ecosystem, starting with a producer. In Option A, Grass is a producer (plants), Goat is a primary consumer that eats grass, and Human is a secondary or tertiary consumer that can eat goat. This correctly shows a linear flow of energy from producer to consumers. The other options present incorrect or reversed sequences that do not represent a valid food chain: B) Elephant and Goat both eat Grass, but there’s no flow shown between Elephant/Goat and Grass in the order presented. C) Tiger eats animals, Snake eats animals, Grass is a producer – no correct flow. D) Insect eats Grass, Frog eats Insect, Grass is a producer – the order is incorrect.
– A food chain starts with a producer (organism that makes its own food, usually plants).
– The arrows in a food chain indicate the direction of energy flow (from the organism being eaten to the organism that eats it).
– The sequence is typically Producer -> Primary Consumer (Herbivore) -> Secondary Consumer (Carnivore/Omnivore) -> Tertiary Consumer, etc.
Food chains are simplified models of energy flow in ecosystems. In reality, organisms often have multiple food sources, forming complex food webs. Understanding food chains helps to understand ecological relationships and energy transfer efficiency.

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63. The Nobel Prize in Physics in 2022 was awarded for :

The Nobel Prize in Physics in 2022 was awarded for :

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Evolution of Universe
Quantum entanglement
Black hole
Laser Physics
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023
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The correct answer is B.
The Nobel Prize in Physics in 2022 was awarded jointly to Alain Aspect, John F. Clauser, and Anton Zeilinger for “experiments with entangled photons, establishing the violation of Bell inequalities and pioneering quantum information science.” This work is directly related to quantum entanglement, a phenomenon where two or more particles are linked in such a way that they cannot be described independently of each other, even when separated by large distances.
While the evolution of the Universe, black holes, and laser physics are significant areas of physics, the 2022 Nobel Prize specifically recognized foundational work in quantum mechanics related to entanglement and its potential applications in quantum computing and communication.

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64. Which one of the following is not included in the Human Resource Polic

Which one of the following is not included in the Human Resource Policy of CISF ?

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Harmonious cadre management
Departmental disciplinary actions
Mentoring and team building for direct officers to ensure optimal performance
Continuous performance appraisal
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022
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The question asks which one of the listed items is NOT included in the Human Resource Policy of CISF. While all options relate to personnel management, “Departmental disciplinary actions” are typically governed by specific service rules and regulations rather than being listed as a core *goal* or *component* within a standard HR Policy document that focuses on areas like cadre management, performance, training, and development. HR policies often outline the framework for handling such actions, but the detailed list of specific disciplinary actions themselves might reside elsewhere. Options A, C, and D represent common strategic and operational elements included in HR policies aimed at effective personnel management and development.
Human Resource Policies typically focus on strategic management, development, welfare, and positive aspects of personnel management. While disciplinary actions are an HR function, the detailed procedures and rules are often codified in separate service rules or procedural manuals rather than being a primary component listed within a general HR policy document in the same way as cadre management or performance systems.
Disciplined forces like CISF have detailed rules governing conduct and discipline, often derived from specific acts and rules applicable to central armed police forces. These rules outline the types of misconduct and the corresponding disciplinary procedures and penalties. An HR policy would likely reference these rules and outline HR’s role in the process, but the specific actions might not be exhaustively listed as part of the policy itself. Harmonious cadre management involves planning, recruitment, promotion, and posting. Mentoring and team building are developmental activities. Continuous performance appraisal is part of evaluation and career progression.

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65. The question whether the Central Administrative Tribunal could interfe

The question whether the Central Administrative Tribunal could interfere with penalty awarded by the competent authority on the ground that it is excessive or disproportionate to the misconduct proved, was examined by the Supreme Court of India in which one of the following cases ?

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Excel Wear vs. Union of India
Sagir Ahmad vs. State of Uttar Pradesh
L. Chandra Kumar vs. Union of India
Union of India vs. Shri Parma Nanda
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022
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The correct answer is Union of India vs. Shri Parma Nanda.
– The question of whether the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) can interfere with the quantum of penalty imposed by the disciplinary authority on the ground of proportionality was extensively examined by the Supreme Court in the case of Union of India vs. Shri Parma Nanda (AIR 1989 SC 1185).
– The Supreme Court held in this case that the Tribunal has the power to judicially review the findings of the disciplinary authority and the punishment imposed. However, the Tribunal should not sit as an appellate authority substituting its own view on the penalty. It should only interfere with the quantum of punishment if it is shockingly disproportionate to the misconduct proved or if there is some procedural irregularity leading to miscarriage of justice.
– Excel Wear vs. Union of India dealt with the validity of provisions restricting the employer’s right to close down an undertaking.
– Sagir Ahmad vs. State of Uttar Pradesh concerned the fundamental right to carry on trade or business and the state’s power to create monopolies.
– L. Chandra Kumar vs. Union of India is a landmark judgment where the Supreme Court declared the power of judicial review of the High Courts and the Supreme Court over decisions of Tribunals as part of the basic structure of the Constitution. While it dealt with the jurisdiction of Tribunals, the Parma Nanda case is more specifically about the scope of review of the proportionality of penalty by administrative tribunals.
– The principle laid down in Parma Nanda regarding the proportionality review by tribunals has been reiterated and followed in numerous subsequent judgments.

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66. Which one of the following is not covered under minor penalties impose

Which one of the following is not covered under minor penalties imposed on a Government servant ?

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Censure
Withholding of promotion
Compulsory retirement
Recovery of pecuniary loss
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022
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The correct answer is Compulsory retirement.
– Disciplinary penalties for Central Government servants are classified into minor and major penalties under the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965 (CCS (CCA) Rules).
– Rule 11 of the CCS (CCA) Rules lists the penalties.
– Minor Penalties include: Censure, withholding of promotion, recovery of pecuniary loss, withholding of increments (without cumulative effect), reduction to a lower stage in the time scale (for a short period, without cumulative effect).
– Major Penalties include: Withholding of increments (with cumulative effect), reduction to a lower stage/service/group/post, compulsory retirement, removal from service, dismissal from service.
– Compulsory retirement is listed as one of the major penalties under Rule 11.
– Censure (A) is the least severe minor penalty.
– Withholding of promotion (B) for a specified period is a minor penalty.
– Recovery of pecuniary loss (D) caused to the government is also a minor penalty.
– Compulsory retirement (C) results in the government servant’s services being terminated prematurely but they are still entitled to pensionary benefits as per rules, unlike removal or dismissal.

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67. Which one of the following is not correct with respect to the conditio

Which one of the following is not correct with respect to the conditions of eligibility for appointment to the CISF ?

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The person shall be a citizen of India
The person shall have training in civil defence
The person shall bear a good moral character
The person shall belong to such categories of persons as may, from time to time be declared by the Central Government as being eligible for appointment to the CISF
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022
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The correct answer is The person shall have training in civil defence.
– Standard eligibility conditions for appointment to a disciplined force like the CISF include citizenship, age limits, educational qualifications, physical and medical fitness, and good character.
– Option A (Citizen of India) is a fundamental requirement for appointment to Central Government services, especially security forces.
– Option C (Good moral character) is essential for members of any disciplined force.
– Option D (Belonging to such categories of persons as may… be declared by the Central Government) refers to the government’s authority to set recruitment criteria, including educational qualifications, age limits, reservation policies, etc., which is a valid aspect of eligibility.
– Option B (The person shall have training in civil defence) is not a standard *eligibility condition* for *appointment*. Training in civil defence or other relevant skills is usually imparted *during* the recruitment process or as part of the training curriculum *after* a candidate is selected for appointment. It is not a pre-requisite for applying or being considered eligible.
– Recruitment rules for CISF outline specific criteria regarding nationality, age, education, physical standards, and character/antecedents. Possession of prior civil defence training is not listed as one of these mandatory entry requirements.

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68. For the purpose of inquiring into any offences or trying offences spec

For the purpose of inquiring into any offences or trying offences specified under Section 18(1) of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, every officer holding the rank of Commandant or equivalent, shall exercise the powers of a:

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Magistrate of the First Class.
Magistrate of the Second Class.
Sessions Judge.
Additional Sessions Judge.
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022
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The correct answer is Magistrate of the First Class.
– Section 18 of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968 deals with offences committed by members of the force against discipline and duty.
– Section 18(3) empowers a Commandant or any officer of higher rank to hold a trial for these offences and award punishments specified in sub-section (2).
– While conducting such summary trials, the officer holding the trial (Commandant or higher) is granted specific powers akin to those of a civil court or magistrate for procedural aspects.
– As per Rule 38 of the Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001 (which elaborate on the summary trial procedure under the Act), the officer holding the trial “shall have the powers of a Magistrate of the First Class for the purpose of examining witnesses, administering oaths and affirmations and requiring the production of documents”.
– The trials under Section 18 are internal disciplinary trials, not criminal trials under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
– However, to conduct a proper trial process (recording evidence, examining witnesses), certain judicial powers are necessary. These powers, for the limited purpose of the trial, are specified as those of a First Class Magistrate.
– Offences triable by Sessions Courts (Sessions Judge/Additional Sessions Judge) are serious criminal offences under the IPC, which are dealt with under Section 19 of the CISF Act, where members of the force are tried by ordinary criminal courts, not by the Commandant.

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69. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched, as per the

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched, as per the Central Industrial Security Force Amendment Act, 1983 ?

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Senior Security Guard : Naik
Chief Security Officer : Commandant
Head Security Guard : Constable
Security Officer : Assistant Commandant
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022
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The correct answer is Head Security Guard : Constable.
– Based on the typical hierarchical structure of the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) and related forces, the rank progression generally involves Constable, followed by Naik or Senior Constable, then Head Constable (or equivalent), Assistant Sub Inspector (ASI), Sub Inspector (SI), Inspector, Assistant Commandant (AC), etc.
– In the context of CISF ranks (including those potentially used or referred to around the time of the 1983 amendment), Head Security Guard was generally considered equivalent to Head Constable. Naik was a rank typically above Constable and possibly equivalent to Senior Constable or lower than Head Constable. Security Officer is usually a gazetted officer rank, equivalent to Assistant Commandant. Chief Security Officer is often a senior rank or position.
– Comparing the options:
– A) Senior Security Guard : Naik – Plausible equivalence as both are above Constable.
– B) Chief Security Officer : Commandant – While a Commandant might hold the position of Chief Security Officer, they are not typically direct rank equivalents in the general structure. However, less definitively incorrect than C.
– C) Head Security Guard : Constable – Incorrect. Head Security Guard is equivalent to Head Constable, which is a rank significantly higher than Constable.
– D) Security Officer : Assistant Commandant – Plausible and common equivalence for entry-level gazetted officer rank.
– Therefore, the pair Head Security Guard : Constable is not correctly matched.
– CISF ranks include (ascending order): Constable, Senior Constable, Naik, Head Constable, Assistant Sub Inspector, Sub Inspector, Inspector, Assistant Commandant, Deputy Commandant, Commandant, Senior Commandant, Deputy Inspector General, Inspector General, Additional Director General, Director General.
– Historically, ‘Naik’ and ‘Head Security Guard’ were ranks used, with Head Security Guard being equivalent to Head Constable. Equating Head Security Guard to the lowest rank, Constable, is incorrect.

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70. Which of the following Acts is/are not applicable to Central Industria

Which of the following Acts is/are not applicable to Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) ?
1. The Payment of Wages Act, 1936
2. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
3. The Indian Penal Code, 1860
4. The Factories Act, 1948
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

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1, 2 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
2 only
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022
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The correct answer is 1, 2 and 4 only.
– The Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) is an armed force of the Union, established under the CISF Act, 1968.
– Members of armed forces of the Union are typically excluded from the purview of general labour laws such as The Payment of Wages Act, 1936, The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, and The Factories Act, 1948. Their service conditions, discipline, and other related matters are governed by their specific Acts and Rules.
– Article 33 of the Constitution allows Parliament to modify or abrogate fundamental rights for members of armed forces, including those related to freedom of association and other rights that labour laws are based on.
– The Indian Penal Code, 1860 (IPC) is a general criminal law that applies to all persons in India, including members of the CISF, unless specific exceptions are made for acts done in the discharge of their official duty (which are often covered by provisions within the CISF Act or CrPC, but the IPC itself is not rendered inapplicable to them).
– Item 1 (The Payment of Wages Act, 1936), Item 2 (The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947), and Item 4 (The Factories Act, 1948) regulate conditions of service, payment of wages, and industrial relations/working conditions, primarily in industrial establishments and other civilian employment. Members of disciplined forces like CISF have distinct service rules.
– Item 3 (The Indian Penal Code, 1860) defines criminal offences and punishments. CISF personnel are subject to the general criminal law of the land like any other citizen. While the CISF Act contains provisions for disciplinary offences specific to the force, the IPC applies to them for general crimes.
– Therefore, Acts 1, 2, and 4 are generally not applicable to CISF personnel, while Act 3 is applicable. The question asks which are *not* applicable.

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