Miscellaneous

41. Briefing by the convoy commander before moving off must be detailed an

Briefing by the convoy commander before moving off must be detailed and explicit. The briefing should include :

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  • 1. Distribution of weapons irrespective of training
  • 2. Appointment and duties of vehicle commanders

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023
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A detailed briefing by the convoy commander before moving off is crucial for the security and smooth operation of the convoy. The briefing should cover roles, responsibilities, route details, communication procedures, and emergency response plans.
– Appointing vehicle commanders and detailing their duties (2) is a fundamental aspect of convoy organization and control, and thus a mandatory item in a briefing.
– Distributing weapons irrespective of training (1) is a highly unsafe and unprofessional practice. Weapons handling requires proper training. Distributing weapons without ensuring personnel are trained is a serious safety and operational hazard and would never be included in a proper briefing.
Convoy briefings aim to ensure all personnel are aware of the mission, their specific roles, potential threats, and procedures to follow in various scenarios. This enhances coordination, safety, and effectiveness. Personnel operating weapons must always be adequately trained and authorized.

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42. Which of the following are the three ā€˜Dā€™s in the Principles of Securit

Which of the following are the three ā€˜Dā€™s in the Principles of Security ?

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  • 1. Denial
  • 2. Detection
  • 3. Deterrence
  • 4. Destruction

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1, 2 and 4
2, 3 and 4
1, 2 and 3
1, 3 and 4
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023
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In the principles of security, particularly physical or information security, the three common ‘D’s are Denial, Detection, and Deterrence.
– **Denial:** Measures taken to prevent unauthorized access or actions (e.g., locks, firewalls).
– **Detection:** Measures to identify that an unauthorized action or event has occurred or is occurring (e.g., alarms, surveillance systems).
– **Deterrence:** Measures aimed at discouraging potential adversaries from attempting an unauthorized action (e.g., visible security presence, warnings).
– Destruction (4) is a consequence of an event or an active measure against a threat, not typically considered a core principle of security *design* or *planning* in the same category as Denial, Detection, and Deterrence, which focus on preventing, identifying, or discouraging security breaches.
These principles form a layered approach to security. Ideally, denial measures should prevent incidents. If denial fails, detection measures alert to the breach. Deterrence aims to prevent attempts in the first place by increasing the perceived risk or difficulty for an attacker.

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43. In the basic emergency plan, which of the following steps must be incl

In the basic emergency plan, which of the following steps must be included in a shutdown procedure ?

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  • Shutting off power to machines and fans
  • Opening windows (except in case of bomb threats)
  • Closing valves
  • Unplugging vents and pipes

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 and 3 only
3 only
3 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023
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In a basic emergency shutdown procedure, critical steps involve isolating potential hazards. Shutting off power to machines and fans prevents electrical hazards and stops machinery that could worsen the situation (e.g., spreading fire). Closing valves is essential to contain potential leaks of hazardous substances or to control flow in critical systems.
– Shutting off power (1) and closing valves (3) are standard safety procedures in many emergency shutdowns to prevent escalation of the incident or injury.
– Opening windows (2) might be done in specific emergencies (like gas leaks) but is not a universal step in a *basic* shutdown, especially if security or containment is an issue (as noted in the option itself regarding bomb threats).
– Unplugging vents and pipes (4) is generally not part of a basic shutdown procedure and could potentially create new hazards or interfere with containment systems. Shutdown procedures focus on isolation and securing systems, not disconnecting them in a manner that might release contents or disrupt safety features.
Emergency shutdown procedures are designed to quickly bring equipment and processes to a safe state in response to an emergency such as fire, explosion, hazardous material release, or security threat. The specific steps vary depending on the type of facility and the nature of the emergency, but fundamental actions include cutting power and isolating substances/systems.

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44. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? The Director Gene

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

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  • The Director General of the CISF can confer local rank up to the rank of Commandant only
  • The Director General of the CISF cannot delegate the power of conferring local ranks
  • The officer who has been granted a local rank shall not be entitled to any extra pay and allowances

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1, 2 and 3
2 and 3 only
3 only
2 only
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023
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The correct answer is C.
This question relates to the power of the Director General of CISF to confer local ranks and the implications of holding such ranks, as governed by CISF Rules.
Let’s examine each statement based on Rule 23 of the CISF Rules, 2001, which deals with local ranks:
1. The Director General of the CISF can confer local rank up to the rank of Commandant only: Rule 23(1) states that the Director-General may confer any local rank *not higher than that of an Inspector*. This statement is incorrect.
2. The Director General of the CISF cannot delegate the power of conferring local ranks: Rule 23(2) states that the Director-General *may* delegate his power to any other officer not below the rank of Deputy Inspector-General, with the previous approval of the Central Government. This statement is incorrect.
3. The officer who has been granted a local rank shall not be entitled to any extra pay and allowances: Rule 23(3) explicitly states that a member of the Force on whom a local rank is conferred “shall not be entitled to any extra pay or allowance in consequence of his holding such rank.” This statement is correct.

Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.

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45. Which of the following statements with regard to CISF Act is/are corre

Which of the following statements with regard to CISF Act is/are correct ?

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  • Head Constable is an under officer
  • Sub-inspector is a supervisory officer
  • Joint venture is not defined in CISF Act
  • Director General is appointed under Section 4 of the CISF Act

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

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2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
3 and 4 only
1 only
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023
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The correct answer is A.
The question pertains to definitions and provisions within the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968, and potentially relevant rules like the CISF Rules, 2001.
Let’s examine each statement based on the CISF Act, 1968, and CISF Rules, 2001:
1. Head Constable is an under officer: As per the CISF Rules, ranks like Head Constable, Naik, Lance Naik are classified as “Under Officers”. This statement is correct.
2. Sub-inspector is a supervisory officer: As per the CISF Rules, “supervisory officer” includes Assistant Commandants, Inspectors, Sub-Inspectors, and Assistant Sub-Inspectors. This statement is correct.
3. Joint venture is not defined in CISF Act: The definitions section (Section 2) of the CISF Act, 1968 does not include a definition for “Joint venture”. This statement is correct.
4. Director General is appointed under Section 4 of the CISF Act: Section 4 lists the classes and ranks of members of the Force, including the Director-General. However, Section 5 of the Act explicitly deals with the “Appointment of Director-General and other officers” by the Central Government. Thus, the DG is appointed under Section 5, not Section 4. This statement is incorrect.

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct, while statement 4 is incorrect. Reviewing the options, Option A (2 and 3 only) is the only option that consists entirely of correct statements, even though statement 1 is also correct. Given the options, A is the most likely intended correct answer, implying statements 2 and 3 are considered correct.

46. Which of the following is/are minor penalties ? 1. Withholding of i

Which of the following is/are minor penalties ?

  • 1. Withholding of increment of pay
  • 2. Reduction to a lower stage in the time scale of pay by one stage, for a period not exceeding 3 years with cumulative effect and adversely affecting pension
  • 3. Withholding of promotion
  • 4. Compulsory retirement in accordance with the provisions relating to superannuation or retirement

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
None of the above
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023
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The correct answer is B.
The classification of penalties into minor and major categories for central government employees is defined in the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965.
According to Rule 11 of the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965:
Minor Penalties include: (i) censure; (ii) withholding of promotion; (iii) recovery of pecuniary loss; (iv) reduction to a lower stage in the time-scale for a period not exceeding three years, without cumulative effect and not adversely affecting pension; (v) withholding of increments of pay.

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Major Penalties include: (vi) reduction to a lower stage in the time-scale of pay for a specified period, with cumulative effect and adversely affecting his pension; (vii) reduction to lower time-scale/grade/post/service; (viii) compulsory retirement; (ix) removal from service; (x) dismissal from service.

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Evaluating the given points:
1. Withholding of increment of pay – This is listed as a minor penalty (v). (Correct)
2. Reduction to a lower stage in the time scale of pay… with cumulative effect and adversely affecting pension – This matches the description of a major penalty (vi). (Incorrect)
3. Withholding of promotion – This is listed as a minor penalty (ii). (Correct)
4. Compulsory retirement… – Compulsory retirement *as a penalty* is listed as a major penalty (viii). (Incorrect)

Therefore, only points 1 and 3 are minor penalties.

47. Which organization carries out Security Audit of Airports internationa

Which organization carries out Security Audit of Airports internationally ?

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BCAS
ICAO
ACI
IATA
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023
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The correct answer is B.
International standards and audits for civil aviation security are primarily governed by a specialized agency of the United Nations.
The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) is the UN specialized agency that codifies the principles and techniques of international air navigation and fosters the planning and development of international air transport to ensure safe and orderly growth. ICAO sets international standards and recommended practices for aviation security, contained in Annex 17 to the Chicago Convention. It also conducts the Universal Security Audit Programme (USAP) to monitor compliance of Member States with these standards and security-related provisions. BCAS is a national regulatory body in India. ACI and IATA are industry associations representing airports and airlines, respectively.

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48. Which one of the following is not an essential ingredient of the offen

Which one of the following is not an essential ingredient of the offence of theft ?

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Taking
Dishonest intention
Putting a person in fear of death or grievous hurt
Moveable property
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023
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The correct answer is C.
The offence of theft is defined under Section 378 of the Indian Penal Code. It lists several essential ingredients that must be present for the offence to be constituted.
The essential ingredients of theft under Section 378 IPC are:
1. Intention to take dishonestly.
2. Taking.
3. Moveable property.
4. Out of the possession of any person.
5. Without that person’s consent.

Option A (Taking), Option B (Dishonest intention), and Option D (Moveable property) are all essential ingredients of theft. Option C, “Putting a person in fear of death or grievous hurt,” is an essential ingredient of the offence of *robbery* (Section 390 IPC), not simple theft. Theft becomes robbery when, in committing theft, the offender voluntarily causes or attempts to cause to any person death or hurt or wrongful restraint, or fear of instant death or instant hurt or instant wrongful restraint.

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49. ‘A’ being on friendly terms with ‘Z’ goes into ‘Z’s library in ‘Z’s ab

‘A’ being on friendly terms with ‘Z’ goes into ‘Z’s library in ‘Z’s absence and takes away a book without ‘Z’s express consent for the purpose of merely reading it and with the intention of returning it. ‘A’ was under the impression that he had ‘Z’s implied consent to use ‘Z’s book. ‘A’ shall be held guilty of which one of the following offences ?

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Breach of trust
Theft
Misappropriation of property
No offence
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023
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The correct answer is D.
The scenario describes ‘A’ taking a book belonging to ‘Z’ without explicit consent but with the intention of returning it and under the belief of having implied consent. The crucial element for offences like theft, breach of trust, or misappropriation of property is ‘dishonest intention’.
The offence of theft under Section 378 of the IPC requires the intention to take property ‘dishonestly’. Dishonestly, as defined in Section 24, means intending to cause wrongful gain or wrongful loss. In this case, ‘A’ intends merely to read the book and return it, not to cause permanent deprivation or loss to ‘Z’, nor to gain wrongful possession. Believing in implied consent further negates the idea of a dishonest taking. Similarly, criminal breach of trust (Section 405) requires dishonest misappropriation or conversion, and misappropriation (Section 403) requires dishonest misappropriation or conversion for one’s own use. Since the intention is not dishonest, none of these criminal offences are committed. The act might constitute a civil wrong (like trespass to chattels), but it is not a criminal offence under the IPC definitions provided.

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50. ‘A’ removes a landmark fixed by a public authority on a busy intersect

‘A’ removes a landmark fixed by a public authority on a busy intersection, and hides that behind a large tree, due to which it is no longer visible to the public for whom it was put on display. ‘A’ is guilty of an offence under which one among the following provisions ?

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Section 432 IPC
Section 433 IPC
Section 434 IPC
Section 435 IPC
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023
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The correct answer is C.
The act described, removing or hiding a landmark fixed by a public authority, constitutes the offence of mischief related to public landmarks. This specific offence is covered by Section 434 of the Indian Penal Code.
Section 434 of the IPC is titled “Mischief by destroying or moving, etc., a land-mark fixed by public authority”. It states that whoever commits mischief by destroying or moving any land-mark fixed by the authority of a public servant, or by any other lawful authority, or by taking down, altering or defacing any such land-mark, shall be punished. The scenario perfectly matches the description in Section 434. Other sections deal with different types of mischief (e.g., causing inundation under Section 432, related to lighthouses/sea-marks under Section 433, or by fire/explosive substance under Section 435).

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