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221. Which of the following statements about CISF is/are correct ? 1. CIS

Which of the following statements about CISF is/are correct ?

1. CISF is the only Central Armed Police Force in India having a full-fledged fire service wing.
2. CISF offer security consultancy services only to the Government establishments.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

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The correct option is A, as statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.

Statement 1: The Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) has a specialized and well-developed Fire Wing, providing services to industrial establishments, airports, and other vital installations. While other Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) may have fire fighting capabilities, CISF is often recognized for having the most comprehensive and full-fledged fire service wing among them. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2: CISF does offer security consultancy services. However, these services are not limited *only* to Government establishments. Following amendments to the CISF Act, 1968 (especially in 2009), CISF can be deployed to provide security to joint ventures and private sector establishments on a payment basis. Accordingly, their consultancy services are also available to private entities. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

The CISF was established in 1969 under the CISF Act, 1968. Its primary role is to provide security cover to sensitive Government buildings, public sector undertakings, airports, seaports, and other critical infrastructure. The 2009 amendment broadened its mandate to include security for private sector units and joint ventures. The Fire Wing is a crucial component of CISF, specializing in industrial fire safety and response.

222. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. The orders iss

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. The orders issued by the Central Government from time to time as regards reservation, relaxation of the age limit and other concessions for the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, Ex-servicemen and other special categories of persons are not applicable to the Central Industrial Security Force.
2. The Director General may give relaxation in the eligibility criteria for recruitment to the post of Constable at the time of direct recruitment.
3. No relaxation can be made by the Director General in the medical criterion for recruitment even if it is in the interest of the Force and is considered not to be detrimental to the functioning of the Force.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”2 and 3 only” option2=”1, 2 and 3″ option3=”1 and 2 only” option4=”3 only” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

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Checking each statement against the CISF Rules, 2001:
1. Rule 9(1)(c) explicitly states that recruitment shall be made “subject to the orders issued by the Central Government from time to time regarding reservation, relaxation of age limits and other concessions for the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, Ex-servicemen and other special categories of persons.” This means these orders *are applicable* to the CISF, not “are not applicable” as stated in Statement 1. So, Statement 1 is incorrect.
2. Rule 15 of the CISF Rules, 2001 vests the power of relaxation of any provision of the rules with the *Central Government*. While specific recruitment notifications might delegate limited powers (e.g., for physical standards for certain areas), the general power to relax eligibility criteria is not with the Director General. Statement 2 is likely incorrect.
3. As general relaxation power rests with the Central Government (Rule 15, Rule 9(1)(d)), it is consistent with the rules that the Director General *cannot* independently make relaxation in the medical criterion for recruitment. Statement 3 is likely correct.
Based on the analysis, only statement 3 is correct.

– Central Government reservation and relaxation policies apply to CISF.
– Power to relax rules generally rests with the Central Government.
– Specific criteria like medical standards are typically subject to strict adherence or relaxation only as per Central Government orders.

– Statement 2 is likely incorrect because the primary power to relax rules is with the Central Government. While the DG implements recruitment, the authority for significant relaxations typically requires higher approval.
– Statement 3 is likely correct because medical standards are critical for uniformed forces, and independent relaxation by the DG is generally not provided for in the rules, aligning with the Central Government’s power over relaxation.

223. Which one of the following statements with regard to the CISF Rules, 2

Which one of the following statements with regard to the CISF Rules, 2001, is correct ?
A) The cases of termination of the services of a probationer can be reopened by the appointing authority on his/her own motion.
B) The cases of termination of the services of a probationer can be reopened only by the Central Government on appeal by the probationer whose services have been terminated.
C) Wherever permissible, the cases of termination of the services of a probationer can normally be reopened only within three months of the termination, unless there are special circumstances to warrant reopening of the case after this period.
D) If a probationer is reinstated on reopening of the case, no pay and allowances are payable from the date of termination to the date of reinstatement.

[amp_mcq option1=”The cases of termination of the services of a probationer can be reopened by the appointing authority on his/her own motion.” option2=”The cases of termination of the services of a probationer can be reopened only by the Central Government on appeal by the probationer whose services have been terminated.” option3=”Wherever permissible, the cases of termination of the services of a probationer can normally be reopened only within three months of the termination, unless there are special circumstances to warrant reopening of the case after this period.” option4=”If a probationer is reinstated on reopening of the case, no pay and allowances are payable from the date of termination to the date of reinstatement.” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

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Rule 11(2) of the CISF Rules, 2001 states: “The cases of termination of services of a probationer or a temporary member of the Force under this rule may be reopened by the appointing authority or any authority superior to the appointing authority *suo motu* or otherwise…” Statement A accurately reflects that the appointing authority can reopen the case on his/her own motion (suo motu).

– Rule 11 of CISF Rules, 2001 deals with termination of probationers/temporary members.
– Rule 11(2) provides the power and procedure for reopening such terminated cases.
– The power to reopen rests with the appointing authority or any superior authority, and can be exercised suo motu (on their own motion).

– Statement B is incorrect as reopening is not restricted to the Central Government on appeal.
– Statement C reflects the normal timeframe for reopening (within three months) mentioned in Rule 11(2), but it includes the phrase “Wherever permissible” which is not explicitly in the rule text and may introduce ambiguity. Statement A is a more direct and fundamental statement about the authority’s power granted by the rule.
– Statement D is incorrect as Rule 11(3) provides for payment of pay and allowances upon reinstatement unless the reopening order specifies otherwise.

224. ‘A’ is a peon of a store room filled with wheat. ‘B’ is the owner of t

‘A’ is a peon of a store room filled with wheat. ‘B’ is the owner of the store room. ‘A’ introduces water into the store so that wheat be destroyed. ‘A’ has committed the offence of

[amp_mcq option1=”Cheating” option2=”Trespasses by water” option3=”Mischief” option4=”Criminal Breach of Trust” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

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The correct answer is C) Mischief. The act of introducing water into a store room of wheat with the intention to destroy it constitutes causing destruction to property, which falls squarely under the definition of ‘Mischief’ as per Section 425 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC).

– Mischief involves causing destruction or damage to property, or any change in the property or its situation that diminishes its value or utility, with the intention to cause wrongful loss or damage to the public or any person.
– In this scenario, ‘A’ intentionally causes the destruction of wheat (property) belonging to ‘B’, thereby causing wrongful loss to ‘B’. This precisely fits the definition of mischief.

– Cheating (Section 415 IPC) involves deception.
– Criminal Breach of Trust (Section 405 IPC) involves dishonest misappropriation or conversion of property entrusted to someone. While ‘A’ is a peon and potentially has custody, the offence is destruction, not misappropriation.
– “Trespasses by water” is not a specific recognised offence in the IPC. Criminal trespass (Section 441 IPC) involves unlawful entry into property.

225. Under the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, confession befo

Under the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, confession before a police officer by the accused in the custody of the police officer becomes relevant, if

[amp_mcq option1=”the accused is a minor” option2=”the accused is a repeat offender” option3=”evidence is discovered in consequence of the confession” option4=”None of the above” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

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The correct answer is C) evidence is discovered in consequence of the confession.

Sections 25 and 26 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, generally make confessions made to a police officer or while in police custody (unless before a Magistrate) inadmissible. However, Section 27 provides a crucial exception: “when any fact is deposed to as discovered in consequence of information received from a person accused of any offence, in the custody of a police officer, so much of such information, whether it amounts to a confession or not, as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered, may be proved.” This is the ‘discovery’ rule, where the part of the confession leading to a material discovery becomes relevant and admissible.

This exception under Section 27 is based on the principle that the discovery of a fact guarantees the truthfulness of the information received from the accused to that extent. Factors like the accused being a minor or a repeat offender (Options A and B) do not make a confession before a police officer admissible under the Act.

226. Which one of the following is not an essential ingredient of the offen

Which one of the following is not an essential ingredient of the offence of theft?

[amp_mcq option1=”The property may be moved with or without the consent of the person in possession of the property” option2=”The moving of a property should be in order to take such property” option3=”The property should be moved out of the possession of any person” option4=”The movable property must be moved with dishonest intention” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

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The correct answer is A) The property may be moved with or without the consent of the person in possession of the property.

The definition of theft under Section 378 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, explicitly requires that the movable property is taken “out of the possession of any person without that person’s consent”. Therefore, consent of the person in possession negates the element of theft. Option A states that the property *may* be moved *with or without* consent, which directly contradicts the requirement that it must be *without* consent. Thus, moving the property *with* consent is not an essential ingredient of theft.

The other options describe essential ingredients of theft: the property must be moved (B and C involve movement and taking from possession) and the movement must be with dishonest intention (D). The taking must be from the possession of someone, even if that person isn’t the owner. The property must be movable.

227. As per the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, which of t

As per the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, which of the following activities is/are not considered as ‘industry’ ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Domestic service” option2=”Khadi or village industries” option3=”Hospitals or dispensaries” option4=”All of the above” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

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The correct answer is A) Domestic service.

The definition of “industry” under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 has been subject to extensive judicial interpretation. While the definition is broad (“any business, trade, undertaking, manufacture or calling of employers…”), courts have carved out exceptions. Domestic service, where individuals are employed in private homes for personal household work, is generally not considered an ‘industry’ within the meaning of the Act.

Activities like hospitals or dispensaries, and potentially certain organized Khadi or village industries depending on their structure and purpose, have been held by courts to fall within the definition of ‘industry’ for the purposes of the Act, especially after landmark judgments like the Bangalore Water Supply case. Therefore, domestic service is the most distinct exclusion among the given options.

228. An order of seizure or attachment of any property, issued by an office

An order of seizure or attachment of any property, issued by an officer conducting an inquiry or investigation under Section 105D of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, must be confirmed by the Court within a period of

[amp_mcq option1=”30 days of its being made” option2=”45 days of its being made” option3=”60 days of its being made” option4=”90 days of its being made” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

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The correct answer is A) 30 days of its being made.

Section 105D of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, deals with the power to attach property. It states that an order of seizure or attachment made by an officer under this section “shall not remain in force for more than thirty days from the date on which it is made” unless it is confirmed by the Court.

Section 105D is part of Chapter VII-A of the CrPC, which deals with mutual assistance in certain matters between the courts in India and the courts in contracting states. This specific provision allows an officer conducting an inquiry or investigation to make a provisional order of seizure or attachment, which then requires court confirmation for continuation beyond 30 days.

229. In a highly sensitive industrial undertaking, for ensuring optimum lev

In a highly sensitive industrial undertaking, for ensuring optimum level of security, the number of entry/exit gates should be

[amp_mcq option1=”as many as possible” option2=”equal for male and female visitors” option3=”barest minimum” option4=”at least one gate in every 500 metres of the boundary wall” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

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The correct answer is C) barest minimum.

In a highly sensitive industrial undertaking, a key principle of physical security is to minimize potential points of entry and exit. Fewer gates make it easier to control, monitor, and screen people and vehicles entering and leaving the premises, thereby enhancing overall security and reducing vulnerabilities. While the number must be sufficient for operational needs (emergency exits, logistics), it should be the absolute minimum necessary to maintain strict control.

Having “as many as possible” or gates based on arbitrary criteria like distance along a wall without considering security risks increases the complexity and cost of monitoring and staffing, making the facility more vulnerable to unauthorized access. Segregating gates for different purposes (e.g., personnel, vehicles, emergency) is common, but the total number should still be minimized for sensitive sites.

230. What does COSCA stand for ?

What does COSCA stand for ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Committee on Security of Commercial Aviation” option2=”Committee on Security of Civil Aviation” option3=”Commissioner of Security of Civil Aviation” option4=”Commissioner of Security of Commercial Aviation” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

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The correct answer is C) Commissioner of Security of Civil Aviation.

COSCA stood for the Commissioner of Security of Civil Aviation. This was the title of the head of the Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS) in India for a period. The BCAS is the regulatory body for civil aviation security in India.

The designation of the head of BCAS has changed over time. Currently, the head is designated as the Director General (DG), BCAS. However, in the past, the head was indeed referred to as the Commissioner of Security of Civil Aviation (COSCA).