Miscellaneous Archives

201. ‘A’ kills the hen of ‘B’. The value of the hen is above two hundred fi

‘A’ kills the hen of ‘B’. The value of the hen is above two hundred fifty rupees. What is the offence committed by ‘A’?

[amp_mcq option1=”No offence under the IPC” option2=”Mischief under Section 429 of the IPC” option3=”Misappropriation of property” option4=”Trespass of the property of ‘B'” correct=”option2″]

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018

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The correct answer is B) Mischief under Section 429 of the IPC.

Section 425 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 defines “Mischief”. Section 428 punishes mischief by killing or maiming any animal of the value of ten rupees or upwards (fifty rupees or upwards in some states). Section 429, which carries a higher punishment, specifically deals with mischief by killing or maiming cattle, etc., or any animal of the value of fifty rupees or upwards. A hen is an “animal”. Since its value is stated as above two hundred fifty rupees (which is “fifty rupees or upwards”), the act of killing it falls under the ambit of Section 429 IPC.

Section 428 is typically used for killing or maiming animals of lesser value (like a dog or cat worth less than fifty rupees), while Section 429 applies to specified animals (like cattle) irrespective of value, or any other animal whose value is fifty rupees or more. The higher value of the hen places the offence under Section 429.

202. If, during dispersal of an unlawful assembly, an army officer, command

If, during dispersal of an unlawful assembly, an army officer, commanded to disperse it, exceeds his power which had resulted into the death of four women and three children, that army officer can be prosecuted with the sanction of

[amp_mcq option1=”his Commanding Officer” option2=”the District Magistrate” option3=”the Central Government” option4=”the concerned State Government” correct=”option3″]

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018

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The correct answer is C) the Central Government.

Section 132 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 provides protection against prosecution for acts done in good faith to disperse an unlawful assembly. Section 132(3) specifically states that “No prosecution shall be instituted in any Criminal Court against any person for any act done in good faith in pursuance of this section… (c) if such person is a member of the armed forces of the Union, without the sanction of the Central Government.” In this scenario, the army officer is a member of the armed forces acting (though exceeding power) in the course of dispersing an unlawful assembly.

This provision grants special protection to members of the armed forces when acting to maintain public order, requiring the highest level of executive sanction (Central Government) before they can be prosecuted for such actions, provided the act was done in pursuance of Section 132, even if power was exceeded. The intention is to protect them from vexatious litigation while ensuring accountability through a high-level review process.

203. Any book or newspaper or document can be forfeited and seized by an or

Any book or newspaper or document can be forfeited and seized by an order of the State Government under Section 95 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, if the same contains any matter, the publication of which is punishable under Sections

[amp_mcq option1=”124A, 122, 292 and 354A of the IPC” option2=”124A, 153A, 153B, 292, 293 and 295A of the IPC” option3=”124A, 153B, 509, 376 and 377 of the IPC” option4=”124A, 153A, 153B, 354 and 509 of the IPC” correct=”option2″]

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018

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The correct answer is B) 124A, 153A, 153B, 292, 293 and 295A of the IPC.

Section 95 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 empowers the State Government to declare certain publications forfeited if they contain any matter whose publication is punishable under specific sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860. These sections are Section 124A (Sedition), Section 153A (Promoting enmity between different groups), Section 153B (Imputations, assertions prejudicial to national integration), Section 292 (Sale, etc., of obscene books, etc.), Section 293 (Sale of obscene objects to young person), and Section 295A (Deliberate and malicious acts, intended to outrage religious feelings of any class by insulting its religion or religious beliefs).

This power allows the government to take action against publications deemed inflammatory or harmful without immediate judicial intervention, though the affected party has a right to apply to the High Court to set aside the order of forfeiture under Section 96 CrPC. The listed IPC sections cover offences related to public order, national integration, obscenity, and religious feelings.

204. When was the CISF inducted at airports ?

When was the CISF inducted at airports ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1999″ option2=”2001″ option3=”2002″ option4=”2000″ correct=”option4″]

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018

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The correct answer is D) 2000.

Following the hijacking of Indian Airlines Flight 814 in December 1999, the Indian government decided to induct the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) for security duties at major airports across the country to enhance airport security. The process of deploying CISF personnel at sensitive airports began in the year 2000.

Prior to the induction of CISF, airport security in India was primarily handled by the state police. The decision to hand over security duties to a professional federal force like CISF was a significant step towards modernizing airport security management in the wake of increased threats. The deployment was phased, starting with the more sensitive and busy airports.

205. Which one of the following is the first duty of a police officer at a

Which one of the following is the first duty of a police officer at a scene of crime ?

[amp_mcq option1=”To preserve the scene of crime” option2=”Photograph the scene of crime” option3=”Start collecting physical evidence” option4=”Make a sketch of the scene of crime” correct=”option1″]

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018

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The absolute first duty of a police officer upon arriving at a scene of crime is to preserve the scene. This involves securing the area to prevent unauthorized access, contamination, or alteration by bystanders, witnesses, or even other emergency personnel. Preservation ensures the integrity of potential evidence before it is documented, collected, and analyzed.

Preserving the scene of crime is paramount as it protects the physical evidence from being disturbed or destroyed, which is essential for a proper investigation.

Once the scene is secured, subsequent steps in crime scene management include documenting the scene (photographing, sketching, video recording), searching for evidence, collecting and preserving evidence, and conducting a final survey. Each step must be conducted meticulously to maintain the chain of custody and ensure evidence is admissible in court.

206. Which of the following are the main components of an IED ?

Which of the following are the main components of an IED ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Weapons, explosives, dangerous articles, dangerous substances” option2=”Ignition, incendiary material mechanism” option3=”Explosives, switch mechanism and battery / power source” option4=”Explosives, detonator, switch mechanism and battery / power source” correct=”option4″]

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018

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An Improvised Explosive Device (IED) typically consists of four main components:
1. **Explosives:** The main charge that causes the damage (e.g., dynamite, C4, homemade explosives).
2. **Detonator (or Initiator):** A small charge or device used to initiate the main explosive charge. This is often the most sensitive part.
3. **Switch Mechanism:** The device that triggers the detonator. This can be a simple switch, a timer, a remote control, a pressure plate, etc.
4. **Battery / Power Source:** Provides the energy needed to activate the switch and detonator.
Option D lists these four essential components of a typical IED.

The four core components of an IED are the explosive material, the detonator, the trigger mechanism, and the power source.

IEDs are characterized by their improvised nature, meaning they are constructed from non-standard military components. While the four main components are common, the materials and construction methods can vary widely, making them challenging to detect and counter. Other components might be added, such as fragmentation material (nails, ball bearings), but these are additions to the core explosive train.

207. First Aid Fire Extinguishers are known as

First Aid Fire Extinguishers are known as

[amp_mcq option1=”Fire tenders” option2=”Foam tenders” option3=”Portable fire extinguishers” option4=”DCP tenders” correct=”option3″]

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018

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“First Aid” in the context of fire fighting refers to the initial response to a small fire before it grows out of control or before professional firefighters arrive. Portable fire extinguishers are designed to be used by individuals present at the scene for this initial, immediate attack on a small fire. They are distinct from larger fire fighting apparatus like fire tenders or specialized vehicles (foam tenders, DCP tenders) that are operated by trained fire services.

Portable fire extinguishers are the primary tools used for “First Aid” fire fighting, enabling individuals to tackle small fires quickly.

Different types of portable fire extinguishers exist for different classes of fires (e.g., water, foam, dry chemical powder (DCP), CO2, wet chemical). Using the correct type of extinguisher for the specific fire is crucial for effective and safe fire fighting. Training on the proper use of portable extinguishers is often part of basic fire safety education.

208. Who among the following is responsible for guarding the aircraft hanga

Who among the following is responsible for guarding the aircraft hangar ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Airport security” option2=”Airport operator” option3=”Aircraft operator” option4=”ASG” correct=”option4″]

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018

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Aircraft hangars are critical, restricted areas within the airport premises. Security for such areas, which house valuable aircraft and equipment and are potential targets, is the responsibility of the primary airport security force. In India, this is the Airport Security Group (ASG), primarily composed of CISF personnel, who are tasked with securing the entire airport area including hangars, aprons, terminals, and perimeter.

The ASG is responsible for overall airport security, which includes the security and guarding of critical infrastructure like aircraft hangars.

While aircraft operators may have some personnel within the hangar for maintenance or operations, the overall security and access control of the hangar structure and surrounding area is managed by the airport’s designated security agency (ASG). The Airport Operator manages the facility but the security provision is typically outsourced to or provided by a specialized force like the ASG.

209. Who among the following is responsible for pre-flight anti-sabotage ch

Who among the following is responsible for pre-flight anti-sabotage check of an aircraft ?

[amp_mcq option1=”ASG” option2=”Airlines security” option3=”BDDS” option4=”Crew of the airlines” correct=”option2″]

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018

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Pre-flight anti-sabotage checks of an aircraft are a crucial part of airline security operations. These checks are performed by trained personnel of the airlines themselves, often referred to as airline security staff or engineers trained in security procedures, as mandated by aviation security regulations. The purpose is to ensure that no prohibited items, explosives, or devices have been placed on the aircraft between flights or during transit.

The responsibility for the pre-flight anti-sabotage check lies with the aircraft operator (airlines) as part of their direct operational security procedures.

While ASG provides security for the airport perimeter and access control, the detailed check of the aircraft interior and exterior before each flight cycle is an airline responsibility. BDDS is involved only if there is a specific threat. The flight crew performs specific safety and operational checks but not the comprehensive anti-sabotage inspection.

210. Which of the following agencies can carry out search of the aircraft d

Which of the following agencies can carry out search of the aircraft during specific bomb threat call ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Airlines security / Airlines engineers only” option2=”Airlines security / Airlines engineer / BDDS / ASG / DGCA” option3=”Airlines security / Airlines engineer / BDDS / Dog squad” option4=”Airlines security / Airlines engineer / BDDS only” correct=”option3″]

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018

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During a specific bomb threat call, the search of an aircraft requires a coordinated effort involving multiple entities with specific expertise. Airlines security and engineers have detailed knowledge of the aircraft’s layout and potential hiding spots. A Bomb Detection and Disposal Squad (BDDS) has the expertise to identify, assess, and potentially render safe explosive devices. A Dog Squad trained in explosive detection is highly effective in locating concealed explosives. The ASG provides security and perimeter control but the detailed search is performed by those with specialized skills related to the aircraft and explosives. DGCA is the regulatory body and does not participate in operational searches. Option C provides the most relevant combination of operational entities for carrying out a detailed search under a bomb threat scenario.

A comprehensive search for an explosive device on an aircraft during a bomb threat involves entities with knowledge of the aircraft, explosive detection capabilities (dogs), and explosive disposal expertise (BDDS).

The specific protocol for an aircraft bomb threat search involves detailed checklists, systematic procedures, and coordination between the airline, airport operator, ASG, BDDS, and other relevant agencies like the fire service and medical teams. The process aims to be thorough while prioritizing the safety of all involved.