Miscellaneous

161. A is a driver of a van which carries cash to refill ATMs of a bank. B

A is a driver of a van which carries cash to refill ATMs of a bank. B is security personnel and authorized to refill that cash in ATMs. At a red light when B steps down to ease himself, A on the pretext of taking turn, runs away with the cash van. At which of the following points is the commission of theft completed?

[amp_mcq option1=”When A unloaded the cash from the van” option2=”When A turns the vehicle in a direction other than the pre-determined route” option3=”When B steps down from his van” option4=”None of the above” correct=”option2″]

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019
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The commission of theft is completed at the moment the movable property is taken out of the possession of another person with dishonest intention. In this scenario, A is the driver of the van carrying cash, which is in the legal possession of the bank through its personnel (B). When A, with the dishonest intention of stealing the cash, turns the vehicle away from the predetermined route, he is taking the van (and the cash inside) out of the lawful possession of the bank/B without their consent. This movement of the vehicle constitutes the ‘taking’ element of theft.
– Theft is defined under Section 378 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) as the dishonest taking of movable property out of the possession of any person without that person’s consent.
– The ‘taking’ element involves the movement of the property.
– In this case, the van carrying cash is the movable property.
– The dishonest intention is formed when A decides to run away with the van.
– The theft is complete when A performs the first act of moving the van with this dishonest intention, which is turning the vehicle away from its route.
Options A and C are incorrect. Unloading the cash (A) happens after the theft is complete. B stepping down (C) merely provides the opportunity; it is A’s subsequent action of moving the van dishonestly that constitutes the theft. Option D is incorrect because the commission of theft is completed at a specific point.

162. Which one of the following substances is not a source of ‘A’ class

Which one of the following substances is not a source of ‘A’ class fire?

[amp_mcq option1=”Wood” option2=”Stainless steel” option3=”Paper” option4=”Jute” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019
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‘A’ class fires involve ordinary combustible materials such as wood, paper, cloth, rubber, and certain plastics. These materials burn by forming embers. Stainless steel (B) is a metal alloy known for its resistance to rust and corrosion, and it is highly fire-resistant. It does not act as a fuel source for a Class A fire (or typically any other fire class, except possibly in highly specialized, extreme conditions involving metal fires – Class D – which stainless steel isn’t part of in standard classifications). Wood (A), Paper (C), and Jute (D) are all common examples of Class A combustible materials.
– **Class A fires:** Solid combustibles (wood, paper, textiles).
– **Class B fires:** Flammable liquids and gases.
– **Class C fires:** Energized electrical equipment (note: US standard, in some other systems it’s combustible gases).
– **Class D fires:** Combustible metals (magnesium, titanium, sodium, potassium).
– **Class K/F fires:** Cooking oils and fats.
– Stainless steel is a non-combustible material.
Different types of fire extinguishers are rated for different classes of fires. For Class A fires, water-based extinguishers or dry chemical extinguishers are often used.

163. At the time of induction of CISF in an undertaking, the concerned unde

At the time of induction of CISF in an undertaking, the concerned undertaking is required to deposit

[amp_mcq option1=”an amount equal to six months monthly billing of CISF” option2=”an amount equal to three months monthly billing of CISF” option3=”an amount equal to two months monthly billing of CISF” option4=”an amount equal to one month monthly billing of CISF” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019
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As per the administrative and financial procedures for CISF deployment, undertakings requesting CISF security are required to deposit an amount equal to three months’ estimated monthly billing of CISF charges as an advance payment at the time of induction. This advance is adjusted against future bills. This is a standard administrative requirement to ensure timely payment for the services rendered by the force.
– CISF is a cost-reimbursable force for public sector undertakings and private entities.
– The charges cover the salary and allowances of the deployed personnel, administrative overheads, and other related costs.
– An initial advance payment is required upon deployment to cover initial expenses and serve as a security deposit.
– The standard required advance is typically three months’ billing.
The terms and conditions for CISF deployment, including the billing cycle and advance payment requirements, are governed by specific rules and agreements between the Ministry of Home Affairs (under which CISF functions) and the concerned undertaking.

164. Stand Alone XBlS machines at airports commonly work on the principle

Stand Alone XBlS machines at airports commonly work on the principle of

[amp_mcq option1=”ion mobility spectrometry” option2=”gas chromatography” option3=”backscatter technology” option4=”electromagnetic radiation” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019
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XBIS (X-ray Baggage Inspection Systems) machines work by using X-rays to create images of the contents of luggage. While standard systems use transmission X-ray technology, advanced “stand-alone” machines, particularly for security screening, often incorporate backscatter technology. Backscatter X-rays provide a different view of the object’s composition and density compared to transmission images, helping to detect organic materials and distinguish layers. Ion mobility spectrometry (A) and gas chromatography (B) are used for trace detection of substances (like explosives or narcotics), not for imaging the bulk contents of baggage. Electromagnetic radiation (D) is too broad a term as X-rays are one form of electromagnetic radiation, but ‘backscatter technology’ describes a specific principle used in X-ray imaging for this purpose.
– XBIS machines use X-rays to scan baggage.
– Transmission X-ray imaging passes X-rays through the object and detects those that penetrate.
– Backscatter X-ray imaging detects the X-rays that are scattered back towards the source, providing information about the surface and composition of the object.
– Many modern security X-ray scanners use both transmission and backscatter techniques for enhanced detection.
Backscatter technology is particularly effective at highlighting organic materials like explosives, drugs, and food, which can be difficult to discern in standard transmission images.

165. During a fire in a building, which one of the following is not require

During a fire in a building, which one of the following is not required to be done by the CISF?

[amp_mcq option1=”To rescue persons trapped inside the building” option2=”To stop spread of fire” option3=”To call the fire brigade and help the approach area clear” option4=”To start registering FIRs at once” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019
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During a fire incident, the primary responsibilities of security personnel like CISF typically involve immediate life safety and containment measures. This includes rescuing persons trapped (A), attempting to stop the spread of fire if possible and safe (B), and facilitating the work of professional firefighters by calling the fire brigade and clearing access routes (C). Registering FIRs (First Information Reports) is a formal step usually undertaken by the police after the immediate emergency is handled and preliminary assessment of the incident is made, especially if foul play is suspected. It is not an immediate action required “at once” by CISF during an active fire.
– CISF’s role during emergencies like fire is focused on initial response: securing the area, assisting personnel, alerting professional emergency services, and potentially aiding in containment if trained and equipped.
– Registering an FIR is a function of the police (station house officer) based on information received about a cognizable offense. While CISF might report the incident to the police, they do not typically register the FIR themselves in the immediate chaos of an active fire.
CISF has dedicated fire wings in many large industrial undertakings and airports, equipped with specialized firefighting equipment and trained personnel. Their role is critical in the initial response phase before municipal fire services arrive.

166. Which one of the following is not a high explosive?

Which one of the following is not a high explosive?

[amp_mcq option1=”PEK” option2=”TNT” option3=”PETN” option4=”Cordite” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019
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Cordite is primarily a propellant, which falls under the category of low explosives or deflagrating explosives, not high explosives. High explosives detonate, while low explosives deflagrate (burn rapidly). TNT (Trinitrotoluene) and PETN (Pentaerythritol tetranitrate) are well-known high explosives used in military, industrial, and terrorist applications. PEK is not a commonly recognized acronym for an explosive substance, but based on the options, Cordite is definitively not a high explosive.
– **High Explosives:** Detonate rapidly, producing a powerful shock wave (e.g., TNT, PETN, RDX).
– **Low Explosives:** Deflagrate (burn rapidly), used as propellants (e.g., Cordite, black powder, smokeless powder).
– Cordite is a composite propellant made from nitrocellulose and nitroglycerine.
The distinction between high and low explosives is crucial in understanding their applications and safety handling procedures. High explosives are used for demolition and warheads, while low explosives are used to propel projectiles (in firearms and artillery) or as propellants in rockets.

167. A passenger who has checked in but not reported to board the flight is

A passenger who has checked in but not reported to board the flight is called

[amp_mcq option1=”Gate no-show” option2=”Cancelled passenger” option3=”Transit passenger” option4=”Deported passenger” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019
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A passenger who has checked in for a flight but does not present themselves for boarding at the gate before the flight departs is commonly referred to as a “no-show”. Specifically, in aviation terms, this is often categorized as a “Gate no-show”.
– **Gate no-show:** A passenger who has completed the check-in process but fails to arrive at the boarding gate by the specified time.
– Other terms like Cancelled passenger (B) implies they cancelled their reservation.
– Transit passenger (C) refers to a passenger passing through an airport en route to another destination.
– Deported passenger (D) refers to someone being removed from a country.
Airlines track no-shows as it impacts capacity management and potential revenue loss. Depending on the fare rules, airlines may penalize no-shows or cancel subsequent legs of their journey.

168. The pilot who is responsible for operation and safety of the aircraft

The pilot who is responsible for operation and safety of the aircraft during its flight is called

[amp_mcq option1=”Pilot in Flight” option2=”Flight Commander” option3=”Co-pilot” option4=”Pilot in Command” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019
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In aviation, the pilot designated as being in charge of the aircraft and having the ultimate responsibility for its operation and safety during flight is known as the Pilot in Command (PIC).
The Pilot in Command (PIC) is the specific term for the pilot with final authority and responsibility for the aircraft.
The Co-pilot assists the Pilot in Command, and while both are pilots, only one is designated as the PIC for any given flight. The term “Flight Commander” is more commonly used in military aviation or specific operational contexts, not standard civil aviation terminology for the pilot in charge.

169. Who among the following is responsible for access control to an

Who among the following is responsible for access control to an airport?

[amp_mcq option1=”Airport Operator” option2=”State Government” option3=”BCAS” option4=”APSU/ASG” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019
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The Airport Operator is the entity responsible for the overall management, operation, and security of the airport premises. This includes implementing and managing the access control system for the airport, ensuring that only authorized personnel and vehicles enter restricted areas. While security forces (APSU/ASG) enforce the access control, and BCAS sets the regulations, the ultimate responsibility for managing the airport’s security infrastructure and ensuring access control is implemented rests with the Airport Operator.
The Airport Operator holds the primary responsibility for the overall security management of the airport, including the implementation and maintenance of access control systems.
The Airport Security Unit (ASU) or Airport Security Group (ASG/APSU) personnel are responsible for physically enforcing the access control procedures established by the Airport Operator in accordance with BCAS regulations.

170. Who is authorized to carry a loaded weapon during flight?

Who is authorized to carry a loaded weapon during flight?

[amp_mcq option1=”PSOs of VVIP” option2=”Sky Marshal” option3=”Passenger holding valid license” option4=”SPG personnel when accompanying their protectee” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019
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While certain authorized personnel like SPG or PSOs accompanying VVIPs may be permitted to carry weapons under specific security protocols, the Sky Marshal’s primary role and operational requirement is to be an armed officer ready for immediate action during a flight. They are specifically authorized to carry loaded weapons accessible for use in the aircraft cabin to counter potential threats.
Sky Marshals are specifically deployed as armed security personnel on flights and are authorized to carry loaded weapons for the purpose of in-flight intervention.
Authorization for other personnel (like SPG or PSOs) to carry weapons on flights often involves different procedures, potentially including checked baggage or specific securing methods, whereas the Sky Marshal’s weapon is kept readily accessible.
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