Miscellaneous Archives

131. A screener should not be doing screening for more than

A screener should not be doing screening for more than

[amp_mcq option1=”10 minutes” option2=”15 minutes” option3=”20 minutes” option4=”25 minutes” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2020

The internationally recommended maximum duration for a screener to continuously perform screening duties, especially involving tasks requiring high concentration like X-ray image analysis or physical frisking, is typically limited to 20 minutes.

Limiting the continuous screening time is crucial to prevent fatigue, maintain alertness, and ensure effectiveness in detecting threats. After this period, screeners should be rotated to other less demanding tasks or take a break.

Different security agencies and countries may have slightly varying guidelines, but 20 minutes is a widely adopted best practice in aviation and other high-security screening environments. This practice enhances overall security performance by reducing the risk of human error due to tiredness or monotony.

132. What is the minimum number of escort(s) required for a dangerous priso

What is the minimum number of escort(s) required for a dangerous prisoner on board an aeroplane ?

[amp_mcq option1=”4″ option2=”3″ option3=”2″ option4=”1″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2020

Download PDF Attempt Online

While specific regulations can vary, a common standard or guideline for transporting a dangerous prisoner by air often mandates a minimum of two escorts.

– Security protocols for transporting dangerous or high-risk prisoners are strict due to the potential threat posed during transit.
– A single escort would be insufficient for controlling a dangerous individual, especially in the confined and potentially disruptive environment of an aircraft.
– While more escorts might be required depending on the specific risk assessment, two escorts provide a basic level of security and control, allowing for redundancy and mutual support.

Specific aviation security regulations (e.g., ICAO guidelines, national civil aviation security rules, or prison department protocols) provide detailed requirements for escort ratios based on prisoner classification, flight duration, and other risk factors. A minimum of two escorts for a dangerous prisoner is a commonly cited minimum standard in such guidelines.

133. Which of the following does not fall within the scope of technical con

Which of the following does not fall within the scope of technical consultancy services rendered by the Central Industrial Security Force?

[amp_mcq option1=”Study of the industrial security and fire protection related problems and suggesting appropriate solutions” option2=”Preparing disaster management and contingency plan and conducting rehearsals for such plans” option3=”Planning and designing of communication network and preparation of related operations instructions” option4=”Procurement of security equipment for the establishment to which it has to provide security” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct option is D.

The Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) provides technical consultancy services related to security and fire protection. Their scope includes assessing problems, suggesting solutions, planning security systems, preparing disaster/contingency plans, and designing communication networks. However, the actual procurement of security equipment is typically the responsibility of the establishment seeking the security services, based on the recommendations provided by CISF. CISF acts as a consultant, not a purchasing agent for the client organization.

CISF provides consultancy services to various industrial undertakings and other establishments in the public and private sectors to improve their security posture. These services aim to help organizations identify vulnerabilities and implement effective security measures.

134. The National Industrial Security Academy is located at

The National Industrial Security Academy is located at

[amp_mcq option1=”Hyderabad” option2=”Arakkonam” option3=”Mundali” option4=”Bhilai” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct option is A) Hyderabad.

The National Industrial Security Academy (NISA) is the premier training institution for the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF). It is located in Hakimpet, Hyderabad, Telangana.

CISF has several training centres across India for basic and in-service training, but NISA in Hyderabad is designated as the apex training institute responsible for training officers and specialized personnel, as well as developing training modules.

135. Which of the following statements is not correct? According to the Cen

Which of the following statements is not correct?
According to the Central Industrial Security Force Rules

[amp_mcq option1=”a member of the Central Industrial Security Force may use all means necessary to effect an arrest as long as such Force is minimum required in that particular situation” option2=”the member of the Force making an arrest may also search the person so arrested but only if that person volunteers to be searched so as to prevent allegations of violation of the human rights” option3=”if a search is carried out, a copy of the inventory of the items taken in possession after the search is required to be prepared and given to the person so arrested” option4=”an inventory is required to be prepared even if nothing is seized after search” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct option is B) the member of the Force making an arrest may also search the person so arrested but only if that person volunteers to be searched so as to prevent allegations of violation of the human rights.

This statement is incorrect. Standard legal procedures for arrest in India (e.g., under the Code of Criminal Procedure, which generally applies unless specific rules override it) permit a police officer (and similarly, security forces with arrest powers) to search the person arrested to prevent concealment of weapons, evidence, etc. There is no requirement for the arrested person to “volunteer” for the search. Lawful search upon arrest is a permissible procedure under the law and does not depend on the suspect’s consent; consent is generally required for searches *without* lawful authority or warrant under other circumstances.

Options A, C, and D reflect standard practices or legal requirements generally applicable to law enforcement/security forces making arrests and conducting searches. Use of minimum force is a principle of necessity and proportionality. Preparing an inventory of seized articles and providing a copy is a requirement for transparency and accountability during a search. Documenting that a search was conducted even if nothing was found is also a prudent procedural step.

136. Evidence to conspiracy under Section 10 of the Indian Evidence Act, 18

Evidence to conspiracy under Section 10 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is applicable to

[amp_mcq option1=”crimes only” option2=”torts only” option3=”both crimes and torts” option4=”None of the above” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct option is C) both crimes and torts.

Section 10 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with the relevancy of things said or done by a conspirator in reference to a common design. The language of Section 10 applies when there is “reasonable ground to believe that two or more persons have conspired together to commit an offence or an actionable wrong”.

An “offence” refers to a crime punishable under law. An “actionable wrong” typically refers to a civil wrong for which a legal action can be brought, such as a tort. Therefore, evidence relating to a conspiracy to commit a crime or a conspiracy to commit a tort can be made relevant under Section 10, making the provision applicable to both criminal and civil proceedings involving conspiracy.

137. What is ‘fact in issue’?

What is ‘fact in issue’?

[amp_mcq option1=”Happening of an event” option2=”Facts which are affirmed by party and denied by other” option3=”Relevant fact” option4=”Statement made by party” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct option is B) Facts which are affirmed by party and denied by other.

As per Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, “Fact in issue” means and includes “any fact from which, either by itself or in connection with other facts, the existence, non-existence, nature, or extent of any right, liability, or disability, asserted or denied in any suit or proceeding, necessarily follows.” These are the crucial disputed facts that form the basis of the case.

A “fact in issue” is central to the determination of the case. It is a disputed proposition of fact that one party alleges and the other denies, and upon which the court’s judgment depends. While ‘happening of an event’ can be a fact, it’s only a ‘fact in issue’ if its occurrence or non-occurrence is disputed and relevant to the case. A ‘relevant fact’ is a fact that is connected to a fact in issue in a way that makes it relevant under the Act (Sections 5-55). A ‘statement made by a party’ could be an admission or confession, which may relate to facts in issue or relevant facts, but the statement itself is not the definition of ‘fact in issue’.

138. Which of the following is not correct in relation to admission?

Which of the following is not correct in relation to admission?

[amp_mcq option1=”Admissions are not conclusive, but may operate as estoppels.” option2=”All admissions are confessions.” option3=”All confessions are admissions.” option4=”An admission may be proved by or on behalf of the person making it, if it is relevant otherwise than as an admission.” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct option is B) All admissions are confessions.

An admission is a broader term defined under Section 17 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 as a statement which suggests any inference as to a fact in issue or relevant fact. A confession is a specific type of admission made by a person accused of an offence, suggesting the inference that he committed the crime. While all confessions are admissions, not all admissions are confessions (e.g., admissions in civil cases or admissions by an accused person that do not directly implicate him in the crime but relate to relevant facts).

Option A is correct as per Section 31. Option C is correct because a confession is a type of admission. Option D describes one of the exceptions under Section 21 where an admission can be proved by or on behalf of the person making it (specifically, when it is relevant for reasons other than being an admission, e.g., as a statement accompanying relevant conduct or state of mind).

139. Which one of the following regarding witnesses under the Indian Eviden

Which one of the following regarding witnesses under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is not correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”An accomplice cannot be a witness.” option2=”Communication between lawyer and client is privileged, hence cannot be admitted as evidence.” option3=”Competency of witness shall be decided by Court.” option4=”A dumb witness may give his/her witness only in writing which may amount to oral witness.” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct option is A) An accomplice cannot be a witness.

Section 133 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 states that “An accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person; and a conviction is not illegal merely because it proceeds upon the uncorroborated testimony of an accomplice.” Therefore, an accomplice *can* be a witness.

While Section 133 states that an accomplice is a competent witness, Section 114, Illustration (b) suggests that the court may presume that an accomplice is unworthy of credit unless his evidence is corroborated in material particulars. This highlights that while their evidence is admissible, courts typically treat it with caution and seek corroboration, but they are nonetheless competent to testify. Options B, C, and D correctly reflect provisions of the Indian Evidence Act regarding privileged communications (Sections 126-129), competency of witnesses (Section 118), and evidence by dumb witnesses (Section 119), respectively.

140. A is summoned by Court to produce a particular document. Which one of

A is summoned by Court to produce a particular document. Which one of the following is correct in relation to his examination?

[amp_mcq option1=”He becomes a witness in the case.” option2=”He cannot be cross-examined.” option3=”He can be cross-examined.” option4=”He becomes a witness so he can be called for examination-in-chief and cross-examination.” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct option is B) He cannot be cross-examined.

Section 139 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 explicitly states: “A person summoned to produce a document does not, by the mere fact that he produces it, become a witness, and cannot be cross-examined unless he is called as a witness.”

Simply producing a document in court does not make the person a witness for the purpose of examination-in-chief or cross-examination regarding the facts of the case. They are merely fulfilling a court order to present a specific document. Only if the party calling for the document decides to call this person to testify as a witness on other matters can they then be examined and potentially cross-examined.