11. Consider the following statements regarding the monitoring of RTI appl

Consider the following statements regarding the monitoring of RTI applications and appeals:
1. Annual reports as prescribed by the CIC.
2. A quarterly report regarding disposal and receipts including CPIO-wise analysis of disposal.
3. A bi-monthly report of all RTI requests received and disposed off during the period with a comparative picture.
Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC SO-Steno – 2018
The correct answer is D) 1, 2 and 3. Monitoring RTI implementation involves multiple levels of reporting, both statutory and administrative.
Statement 1 is correct as Section 25 of the RTI Act mandates the Central Information Commission and State Information Commissions to prepare annual reports on the implementation of the Act, and public authorities contribute information for these reports often in formats prescribed by the Commissions. Statements 2 and 3 describe common internal monitoring mechanisms within public authorities, requiring periodic reports (like quarterly or bi-monthly) on the receipt and disposal of applications and appeals, sometimes with specific analysis like CPIO-wise performance, to ensure timely compliance and provide data for the annual reports. These are standard administrative requirements for effective monitoring.
Effective monitoring is crucial for successful implementation of the RTI Act. While the Act mandates annual reporting by the Commissions, various administrative guidelines issued by the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) or the respective state governments often prescribe more frequent internal reporting mechanisms to track progress, identify bottlenecks, and ensure timely disposal of requests and appeals.

12. Consider the following statements regarding the functions of RTI cell:

Consider the following statements regarding the functions of RTI cell:
1. The cell will be a single reference point to receive applications, appeals, complaints and decisions of Central Information Commission.
2. The cell will ensure uploading of all applications and appeals received by it on the RTI-MIS.
3. The cell will ensure uploading of all complaints and decisions of CIC on the DMIS (computerised diary system).
Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC SO-Steno – 2018
The correct answer is D) 1, 2 and 3. All three statements describe typical and advisable functions of an RTI cell within a public authority for efficient management of RTI-related work.
While the RTI Act does not explicitly mandate the creation of an “RTI cell”, it is a common administrative practice for public authorities to establish a dedicated section or designate officers to handle RTI applications, appeals, and related correspondence. Such a cell acts as a central point for receiving and distributing requests, tracking their disposal, managing appeals and complaints, and often utilizes management information systems (like RTI-MIS) and diary systems (like DMIS) for record-keeping and monitoring as per administrative guidelines.
Statement 1 promotes efficiency and avoids confusion by centralizing the receipt point. Statement 2 aligns with the digital record-keeping and monitoring initiatives often implemented by governments (e.g., the online RTI portal). Statement 3 is also consistent with the need to track all incoming and outgoing RTI-related communication, including decisions from the Central Information Commission. Therefore, all three are valid functions of such a cell.

13. Information under the Right to Information Act, 2005 cannot be denied

Information under the Right to Information Act, 2005 cannot be denied on which one of the following grounds/cases ?

Information relating to copyright subsisting in the State
Information is likely to impede investigation or apprehension of an offender
Information is a trade secret
Personal information affecting privacy of an individual
This question was previously asked in
UPSC SO-Steno – 2017
The correct answer is D. While “Personal information affecting privacy of an individual” is listed as a ground for denial under Section 8(1)(j), this exemption is subject to a significant proviso: “unless the Central Public Information Officer or the State Public Information Officer or the Appellate Authority is satisfied that the larger public interest justifies the disclosure of such information”. This means that information, even if personal and affecting privacy, *cannot* be denied if the larger public interest outweighs the potential harm to privacy. This strong public interest override makes it a ground on which information *cannot be universally denied*, unlike potentially more absolute grounds in certain scenarios (though most grounds under Section 8 are also subject to public interest consideration). However, in the context of UPSC questions and interpretation of Section 8(1)(j), the public interest override is heavily emphasized, particularly for information related to public officials performing their duties.
Section 8(1) of the RTI Act lists various grounds for exemption from disclosure. All options A, B, C, and D represent potential grounds for denial under this section. However, the question asks on which ground information *cannot* be denied. This implies looking for a ground that is *not absolute* or where disclosure is mandated under certain conditions despite the initial exemption. The ground of “Personal information affecting privacy of an individual” (Section 8(1)(j)) is explicitly subject to the condition of public interest override, making it a common situation where denial is *not* permissible if public interest is high.
Section 8(1)(d) exempts information including commercial confidence, trade secrets, or intellectual property unless the public interest justifies disclosure. Section 8(1)(h) exempts information which would impede investigation or apprehension of offenders. While these also have nuances, Section 8(1)(j) is perhaps the most frequently debated exemption where the public interest test leads to disclosure even for sensitive information, especially concerning public servants.

14. According to the provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005, whi

According to the provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005, which one of the following statements is correct ?

No reasons are required to be given for seeking information.
Information is to be supplied free of cost after two weeks from the date of making the application.
Where an application is made to a public authority for information which is held by another public authority, the application must be transferred within one week to that public authority having the information.
If an information relates to the life of a person, the information must be supplied within one week under section 7(1) of the Right to Information Act, 2005.
This question was previously asked in
UPSC SO-Steno – 2017
The correct answer is A. No reasons are required to be given for seeking information.
Section 6(2) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, explicitly states that an applicant making a request for information shall not be required to give any reason for requesting the information. This is a fundamental principle of the Act, enabling citizens to access information without needing to justify their request.
Statement B is incorrect. Information is to be supplied within 30 days normally (Section 7(1)). While fees apply, information is supplied free of cost *only* if it is not provided within the specified time limit (Section 7(6)). Two weeks is not the standard free supply period.
Statement C is incorrect. If an application is transferred to another public authority under Section 6(3), the transfer must be made as expeditiously as possible but *not later than five days* from the date of receipt of the application.
Statement D is incorrect. Where the information sought concerns the life or liberty of a person, the information must be supplied within *forty-eight hours* of the receipt of the request (Section 7(1) proviso).
The RTI Act imposes specific time limits for providing information, generally 30 days, but a shorter 48-hour limit for matters concerning life or liberty. Failure to adhere to these limits without reasonable cause can lead to penalties for the Public Information Officer.

15. Which of the following statements is/are correct under the Right to In

Which of the following statements is/are correct under the Right to Information Act, 2005 ?

  • 1. It is not necessary to supply all kinds of information.
  • 2. Information pertaining to corruption in Central Reserve Police Force must be supplied.
  • 3. Information pertaining to violation of human rights in Intelligence Bureau must be supplied.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC SO-Steno – 2017
The correct answer is D (1, 2 and 3). All three statements are correct under the Right to Information Act, 2005.
Statement 1 is correct because the RTI Act provides for certain exemptions from disclosure under Sections 8 and 9. Therefore, it is not necessary to supply all kinds of information.
Statement 2 and 3 are correct based on Section 24 of the RTI Act. Section 24 generally exempts certain security and intelligence organisations listed in the Second Schedule from the purview of the Act. However, the proviso to Section 24(4) (for Central organisations) explicitly states that information pertaining to allegations of corruption and human rights violations shall *not* be excluded from the application of the Act. Both the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) and the Intelligence Bureau (IB) are listed in the Second Schedule. Thus, information relating to corruption in CRPF and human rights violations in IB must be supplied under the Act.
The Second Schedule of the RTI Act lists organisations like IB, RAW, Directorate of Enforcement, Narcotics Control Bureau, Border Security Force, CRPF, Indo-Tibetan Border Police, Central Industrial Security Force, National Security Guard, Assam Rifles, Sashastra Seema Bal, etc. The exemption under Section 24 is subject to the crucial exception regarding corruption and human rights violations. For human rights violations, disclosure is permissible only with the approval of the Central or State Information Commission, as the case may be.

16. Time limit for filing first appeal by an applicant under Sub-section (

Time limit for filing first appeal by an applicant under Sub-section (1) of Section 19 of RTI Act, 2005 is

10 days from the receipt of PIO's decision
30 days from the receipt of PIO's decision
40 days from the receipt of PIO's decision
45 days from the receipt of PIO's decision
This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
The time limit for filing the first appeal by an applicant under Sub-section (1) of Section 19 of the RTI Act, 2005 is 30 days from the receipt of the PIO’s decision.
– Section 19(1) of the RTI Act, 2005 states: “Any person who does not receive a decision within the time specified in sub-section (1) or clause (a) of sub-section (3) of section 7, or is aggrieved by a decision of the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, may within thirty days of the receipt of the decision make an appeal to such officer who is senior in rank to the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer as the case may be, in each public authority…”
– The time limit can be extended for a further period of 15 days if sufficient cause is shown by the appellant.
If the first appellate authority’s decision is not satisfactory or not provided within the stipulated time, a second appeal can be filed with the Central Information Commission (CIC) or State Information Commission (SIC) under Section 19(3) of the Act.

17. Consider the following statements: A PIO has to offer reasonable as

Consider the following statements:

  • A PIO has to offer reasonable assistance to the person making the request orally to record the same in writing.
  • A PIO is under no obligation to provide requested information to non-BPL category persons without the payment of application / initial fees.
  • A PIO is under no obligation to provide the requested information to non-BPL category persons without the payment of further fees as specified by her / him.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
All three statements are correct. A PIO must assist persons making oral requests to reduce them to writing. Non-BPL applicants are required to pay initial application fees and further fees for receiving the information.
Statement 1 is correct. Section 6(1) of the RTI Act states that where a request cannot be made in writing, the PIO shall render all reasonable assistance to the person making the request orally to reduce the same in writing. This ensures that persons who are illiterate or unable to write are not disadvantaged.
Statement 2 is correct. Section 6(1) requires a fee for submitting a request, which is exempted for persons below the poverty line (BPL). Therefore, for non-BPL category persons, payment of the prescribed application/initial fee is mandatory for the request to be processed.
Statement 3 is correct. Section 7(3) and 7(5) outline the procedure for intimation of fees for providing the information (cost of copying, etc.). Section 7(5) explicitly states that no fee shall be charged from persons below the poverty line. By implication, non-BPL applicants are required to pay these further fees as specified by the PIO before the information is provided. The PIO is under no obligation to provide the information without receiving these fees from non-BPL applicants.
The fee structure for RTI applications varies slightly across states and the central government, but the principle of an initial application fee and further fees based on the cost of providing information (like number of pages, copies) is standard, with an exemption for BPL cardholders.

18. Consider the following statements: While inquiring into a complaint, I

Consider the following statements:
While inquiring into a complaint, Information Commissions have the power to

  • summon and enforce attendance of persons.
  • compel them to give evidence on oath and produce documents or things.
  • require discovery and inspection of documents.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

1 only
2 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
All three statements are correct. While inquiring into a complaint, Information Commissions possess the powers of a Civil Court, which include summoning persons, compelling evidence and production of documents, and requiring discovery and inspection of documents.
Section 18(3) of the RTI Act, 2005, grants the Central Information Commission and the State Information Commissions, while inquiring into any matter under the section, the same powers as are vested in a Civil Court while trying a suit under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. These powers include:
Statement 1 is correct. Summoning and enforcing the attendance of persons.
Statement 2 is correct. Compelling them to give oral or written evidence on oath and to produce documents or things.
Statement 3 is correct. Requiring the discovery and inspection of documents.
Other powers include receiving evidence on affidavit, requisitioning public records, and issuing summons for examination of witnesses or documents.
These powers akin to a Civil Court enable the Information Commissions to effectively investigate complaints and appeals filed under the RTI Act, ensuring that public authorities and PIOs comply with the provisions of the Act.

19. Consider the following statements: A Public Information Officer will b

Consider the following statements:
A Public Information Officer will be liable to be imposed a monetary penalty for

  • refusal to receive an information application.
  • not providing information within specified time limits.
  • destroying information.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
All three statements are correct. A Public Information Officer is liable to be penalised for refusal to receive an application, failure to provide information within the time limit, and destruction of information.
Section 20(1) of the RTI Act, 2005, specifies the grounds on which the Central Information Commission or the State Information Commission may impose a penalty on a Central Public Information Officer or a State Public Information Officer. These grounds include:
– Refusal to receive an application for information.
– Failing to furnish information within the time specified.
– Malafidely denying the request.
– Knowingly giving incorrect, incomplete or misleading information.
– Destroying information which was the subject of the request.
– Obstructing in any manner the furnishing of the information.
All three statements listed in the question fall under these grounds for penalty.
The penalty imposed under Section 20(1) is fifty rupees for each day of delay until the information is furnished, not exceeding twenty-five thousand rupees. Before imposing a penalty, the Commission is required to give the PIO a reasonable opportunity of being heard. The burden of proof that he acted reasonably and diligently lies on the PIO.

20. Consider the following statements : A first appeal against the decis

Consider the following statements :

  • A first appeal against the decision of a PIO can be preferred by
  • an applicant.
  • a person from within the Public Authority.
  • a person outside the Public Authority to whom the information pertains.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. An applicant can file a first appeal. A person outside the Public Authority to whom the information pertains (a third party) can also file an appeal under specific circumstances related to disclosure of their information. A person from within the Public Authority does not typically have the right to appeal against the PIO’s decision regarding another applicant’s request.
Statement 1 is correct. Section 19(1) of the RTI Act states that any person who does not receive a decision on a request for information within the specified time limit, or is aggrieved by a decision of the PIO, may prefer an appeal to the first appellate authority (an officer senior in rank to the PIO) within 30 days. This “person” is typically the applicant.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The right to appeal is primarily for the person seeking information or a third party whose information is being disclosed. A person from within the Public Authority, in their official capacity, is involved in the process of providing information, not appealing against the decision regarding an application by an external party.
Statement 3 is correct. Section 19(3) read with Section 11 of the Act allows a third party (a person other than the applicant) whose information is proposed to be disclosed by the PIO to appeal against the PIO’s decision to disclose such information. This appeal is made to the first appellate authority before the information is actually disclosed.
The RTI Act provides for a two-tier appellate mechanism. The first appeal is to a senior officer within the same Public Authority (the First Appellate Authority). The second appeal lies with the Central Information Commission or the State Information Commission.

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