81. In the Lok Sabha, the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business make

In the Lok Sabha, the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business make certain specific provisions with regard to bills for amendment of the Constitution. They relate to

[amp_mcq option1=”voting procedure in the house at various stages of such bills, in the light of the requirements of Article 368.” option2=”the procedure before introduction in case of such bills, if assent is given by the President of India.” option3=”the voting procedure in the house at various stages of such bills, in the light of the requirements of Article 372.” option4=”the procedure before introduction in the case of such bills, if assent is given by concerned State Governor.” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC SO-Steno – 2018
Option A is correct. The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha contain specific provisions related to the various stages of consideration and passing of Bills seeking to amend the Constitution, particularly concerning the special voting requirements mandated by Article 368 (e.g., majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting).
Constitutional Amendment Bills require a special majority as per Article 368. The Lok Sabha Rules of Procedure lay down the specific steps and voting processes within the House to ensure compliance with these constitutional requirements.
Option B is incorrect; President’s assent comes after a bill is passed by Parliament, not before introduction. Option C is incorrect; Article 372 deals with the continuance of existing laws, not constitutional amendment procedures. Option D is irrelevant; State Governors have no role in the process of amending the Constitution by the Union Parliament.

82. Which one of the following is not correct with regard to the Railway C

Which one of the following is not correct with regard to the Railway Convention Committee ?

[amp_mcq option1=”It is a Committee constituted by the Minister of Railways.” option2=”it is an ad hoc Committee of Parliament to review the rate of dividend which is payable by the Railways to the general revenues.” option3=”It suggests the level of appropriation to various Railway funds.” option4=”Minister of Finance is a nominated member of the Railway Convention Committee.” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC SO-Steno – 2017
Option A is incorrect. The Railway Convention Committee is a Committee of Parliament, constituted by the Speaker of Lok Sabha in consultation with the Chairman of Rajya Sabha, not by the Minister of Railways.
The Railway Convention Committee is a standing/ad hoc committee of the Indian Parliament formed periodically. Its primary function is to review the rate of dividend payable by the Railways to the General Revenues and other related financial matters.
The Committee examines the working of the Railway Finances and makes recommendations on various aspects, including the level of appropriation to Railway Depreciation Reserve Fund and Railway Development Fund. It consists of members from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Option B correctly describes its nature as an ad hoc committee to review the dividend rate. Option C correctly states that it suggests appropriations to funds. Option D is also incorrect as the Minister of Finance is not a nominated member; it’s composed solely of Members of Parliament.

83. Consider the following statements: 1. The Financial Bills of catego

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. The Financial Bills of category B if enacted and brought into operation, would involve expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.
  • 2. Financial Bills of category A can be introduced only in Lok Sabha.
  • 3. Financial Bill of category B require recommendation of the President for its introduction.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”1 and 2 only” option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC SO-Steno – 2017
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1: Financial Bills of category B are defined under Article 117(3). These are Bills which, if enacted, would involve expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India but are not Money Bills or Financial Bills under Article 117(1).
Statement 2: Financial Bills of category A are defined under Article 117(1). These Bills contain provisions similar to a Money Bill as well as other matters. Like Money Bills, they can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and require the recommendation of the President for introduction.
Statement 3: Financial Bills of category B (Article 117(3)) do not require the recommendation of the President for their introduction. They only require the recommendation of the President for their consideration by either House.
Financial Bills under Article 117 are of two types. Category A requires Presidential recommendation for introduction and can only be introduced in Lok Sabha. Category B requires Presidential recommendation only for consideration but can be introduced in either House and involves expenditure from the Consolidated Fund upon enactment.
Money Bills (Article 110) also require the President’s recommendation for introduction and can only be introduced in Lok Sabha. Financial Bills of category A are similar to Money Bills in introduction requirements but differ in the powers of the Rajya Sabha. Financial Bills of category B have fewer restrictions on introduction but involve expenditure from the Consolidated Fund.

84. Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to ad

Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to adjournment in Lok Sabha?

[amp_mcq option1=”The Speaker can call a sitting of the House before the date or hour to which it has been adjourned or at any time after the House has been adjourned sine die.” option2=”When the motion "that the House now adjourn" is being discussed, that is, from the hour the discussion on adjournment motion has commenced to the time the motion is disposed of, the Speaker cannot adjourn the House for the day.” option3=”The Speaker can extend the time of the House after taking sense of the House.” option4=”The Speaker cannot adjourn the House sine die without taking the approval of the President.” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC SO-Steno – 2017
Statement D is not correct. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die (for an indefinite period). This action concludes the sitting and the session of the House, which is then formally terminated by the President through prorogation. The Speaker does not require the approval of the President to adjourn the House sine die.
Adjournment (including sine die) is a power exercised by the Presiding Officer (Speaker or Chairman) of the House to suspend or terminate a sitting. Prorogation, which terminates a session, is done by the President.
Statement A is correct; the Speaker can indeed call a sitting before the date to which it has been adjourned or after it has been adjourned sine die (Rule 15 of Lok Sabha Rules). Statement B is correct; during the discussion on an adjournment motion (Rule 60), the Speaker cannot adjourn the House for the day. Statement C is correct; the Speaker often extends the time of the sitting with the consent or ‘sense’ of the House to complete scheduled business.

85. Matters related to which one of the following subjects are not handled

Matters related to which one of the following subjects are not handled by the Ministry of External Affairs?

[amp_mcq option1=”Notification regarding commencement or cessation of a state of war” option2=”World Health Organisation” option3=”Demarcation of the land frontiers of India” option4=”Indian Council of Cultural Relations” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC SO-Steno – 2017
While the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is involved in international boundary agreements and negotiations related to the demarcation of land frontiers, the physical demarcation, survey, and management of land frontiers of India are primarily handled by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MoHA) and agencies under it, such as the Survey of India (under the Department of Science & Technology) and border guarding forces. Therefore, C is the subject where MEA’s role is less primary or is shared with other ministries, compared to the others.
The operational management and physical demarcation of land borders are primarily the responsibility of the Ministry of Home Affairs and associated departments/agencies. While MEA handles the diplomatic and treaty aspects of boundaries, the day-to-day matters and physical processes fall largely outside MEA’s direct purview.
Statement A (Notification regarding commencement or cessation of a state of war) is handled by MEA as it is a matter of international relations and foreign policy. Statement B (World Health Organisation) is handled by MEA as it involves India’s participation in an international organization. Statement D (Indian Council of Cultural Relations) is an autonomous organization under the administrative control of MEA, responsible for India’s cultural diplomacy.

86. Conservation, development, management and abatement of pollution of ri

Conservation, development, management and abatement of pollution of rivers, excluding the river Ganga and its tributaries, is the responsibility of

[amp_mcq option1=”Ministry of Jal Shakti” option2=”Ministry of Earth Sciences” option3=”Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change” option4=”Ministry of Science and Technology” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC SO-Steno – 2017
Conservation, development, management, and abatement of pollution of rivers, including the river Ganga and its tributaries, is the responsibility of the Ministry of Jal Shakti. This ministry was formed by merging the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation and the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation.
The Ministry of Jal Shakti is the central nodal ministry for water resources, river development, and Ganga rejuvenation. While Ganga and its tributaries are a specific focus (via the Namami Gange program), the broader responsibility for conservation, management, and pollution abatement of all rivers falls under this ministry.
The Ministry of Earth Sciences deals with Earth sciences, oceanography, etc. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change is responsible for environmental protection laws, pollution standards, and enforcement through bodies like the Central Pollution Control Board, which play a crucial role in river pollution abatement but are not the primary nodal ministry for overall river development and management. The Ministry of Science and Technology supports research but is not responsible for the operational management of rivers.

87. Matters relating to Himalayan expeditions are handled by which one of

Matters relating to Himalayan expeditions are handled by which one of the following Ministries?

[amp_mcq option1=”Ministry of Home Affairs” option2=”Ministry of Human Resource Development” option3=”Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports” option4=”Ministry of External Affairs” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC SO-Steno – 2017
Matters relating to Himalayan expeditions, which are typically adventure sports activities like mountaineering and trekking, are handled by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. This Ministry promotes adventure sports and provides support for such expeditions.
Adventure sports, including mountaineering and expeditions to the Himalayas, fall under the domain of sports promotion and youth activities, which are managed by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
The Ministry of Home Affairs deals with internal security, borders, and matters related to restricted areas, which might be involved in expeditions near borders, but it is not the nodal ministry for organizing or promoting expeditions themselves. The Ministry of Human Resource Development (now Education) deals with education. The Ministry of External Affairs deals with foreign relations; while foreign nationals or joint international expeditions would involve MEA, the primary responsibility for handling Indian expeditions is with the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.

88. All matters relating to survey to map, locate and assess living and no

All matters relating to survey to map, locate and assess living and non-living marine resources fall within the purview of which of the following?

[amp_mcq option1=”National Institute of Oceanography” option2=”Ministry of Earth Sciences” option3=”Department of Animal Husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries” option4=”Coast Guard Organisation” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC SO-Steno – 2017
Matters relating to survey to map, locate and assess living and non-living marine resources fall primarily within the purview of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES). MoES is responsible for ocean science and technology, including research vessels, ocean surveys, and mapping of marine resources.
The Ministry of Earth Sciences is the nodal ministry in India for all matters related to the Earth system, including oceans. Its mandate includes undertaking ocean surveys, mapping, and assessment of both living and non-living marine resources.
The National Institute of Oceanography (NIO) is a research laboratory under the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR), which is under the Ministry of Science and Technology, not MoES. While NIO conducts relevant research, the overall governmental responsibility and coordination lie with MoES. The Department of Fisheries (under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying) deals with fisheries management and regulation of living resources, but not the broad survey and assessment mandate covering non-living resources and mapping. The Coast Guard is primarily concerned with maritime safety and security.

89. Which of the following statements is not correct?

Which of the following statements is not correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”The Legislature of a State may, by law, establish a Contingency Fund in the nature of imprest.” option2=”The Contingency Fund of the State shall be placed at the disposal of the Chief Minister of the State.” option3=”The fund shall be paid from time to time such sums as may be determined by such law.” option4=”The Contingency Fund is meant to enable advances to be made for the purpose of meeting unforeseen expenditure pending authorization of such expenditure by the Legislature.” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC SO-Steno – 2017
Statement B is not correct. The Contingency Fund of the State, established under Article 267(2) of the Constitution and relevant state legislation, is placed at the disposal of the Governor of the State, not the Chief Minister. Advances are made from this fund by the Governor for meeting unforeseen expenditure, pending authorization by the State Legislature.
Control over the Contingency Fund of the State is vested in the Governor, who operates it on behalf of the Legislature to provide immediate funds for unforeseen events. The Chief Minister, as head of government, can recommend the use of the fund, but the constitutional authority holding the fund is the Governor.
Statement A is correct; Article 267(2) permits the Legislature of a State to establish a Contingency Fund. Statement C is correct; the sums to be paid into the fund are determined by law. Statement D is correct; the purpose of the Contingency Fund is precisely to enable advances for unforeseen expenditure when the Legislature is not in session or before it can authorize such expenditure.

90. Which of the following statements is not correct?

Which of the following statements is not correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”All executive action of the Government of a State shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Chief Minister.” option2=”It is the duty of the Chief Minister to communicate to the Governor of the State all the decisions of Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State.” option3=”The Governor makes rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of the State.” option4=”The validity of rules made by the Governor shall not be called in question.” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC SO-Steno – 2017
Statement A is not correct. All executive action of the Government of a State shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Governor (Article 166(1)). The Chief Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers and advises the Governor, but executive actions are formally taken in the Governor’s name.
Formal executive actions at the state level are carried out in the name of the Governor, similar to how executive actions at the Union level are carried out in the name of the President. The Chief Minister is the head of the government but not the formal head of the executive for issuing orders.
Statement B is correct; Article 167(a) makes it the duty of the Chief Minister to communicate to the Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers. Statement C is correct; Article 166(3) empowers the Governor to make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of the State. Statement D is correct; Article 166(2) states that the validity of rules made by the Governor under Article 166 shall not be called in question on the ground that they are not rules made by the Governor.