Indian Polity and Governance Archives

71. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India provi

Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India provides for the appointment of a retired High Court judge to sit and act as a judge of a High Court ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Article 222A” option2=”Article 224A” option3=”Article 226A” option4=”Article 228A” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2018

Download PDF Attempt Online

Article 224A of the Constitution of India provides for the appointment of retired judges at sittings of High Courts. It states that the Chief Justice of a High Court for any State may at any time, with the previous consent of the President, request any person who has held the office of a Judge of that Court or of any other High Court to sit and act as a Judge of the High Court for that State.

This provision allows for the temporary engagement of retired High Court judges to help clear backlog or assist with judicial work when needed, ensuring the efficient functioning of the High Court.

Article 224A was inserted by the Constitution (Fifteenth Amendment) Act, 1963. This is distinct from the appointment of additional and acting judges (Article 224), who are appointed for a specific period to address temporary increases in the business of the High Court or absence of a judge.

72. Consider the following statements: Acts of Parliament shall not appl

Consider the following statements:

Acts of Parliament shall not apply to Nagaland unless so decided by a resolution by the Legislative Assembly of Nagaland with regard to
1. religious or social practices of the Nagas.
2. Naga customary law and procedure.
3. ownership and transfer of land and its resources.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2018

Download PDF Attempt Online

Article 371A of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the State of Nagaland. Clause (1)(a) of this Article states that no Act of Parliament in respect of (i) religious or social practices of the Nagas, (ii) Naga customary law and procedure, (iii) administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga customary law, (iv) ownership and transfer of land and its resources, shall apply to the State of Nagaland unless the Legislative Assembly of Nagaland by a resolution so decides.

This special provision grants significant autonomy to the State of Nagaland in specific matters considered sensitive to the Naga identity, ensuring that central laws do not override local customs and practices without the consent of the state’s legislature.

Article 371A was inserted by the Constitution (Thirteenth Amendment) Act, 1962, following the agreement that led to the creation of the State of Nagaland in 1963. This provision is aimed at protecting the cultural and social identity and land rights of the Naga people.

73. In the First Schedule to the Constitution of India, Daman and Diu is l

In the First Schedule to the Constitution of India, Daman and Diu is listed at present as

[amp_mcq option1=”the fourth Union Territory” option2=”the sixth Union Territory” option3=”the seventh Union Territory” option4=”the eighth Union Territory” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2018

Download PDF Attempt Online

Prior to the merger of Daman and Diu with Dadra and Nagar Haveli in 2020, the First Schedule of the Constitution listed the Union Territories. The standard listing order of the 7 Union Territories typically placed Daman and Diu as the eighth entry in the First Schedule under the heading “II. The Union Territories”. The entries were generally: 1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands, 2. Chandigarh, 3. Dadra and Nagar Haveli, 4. Daman and Diu, 5. Lakshadweep, 6. Puducherry, 7. Delhi, 8. Jammu and Kashmir, 9. Ladakh (J&K and Ladakh added in 2019). However, if the question pertains to the list of UTs *before* the 2019 reorganisation (which is often the case for older PYQs), then Daman and Diu was indeed the fourth among the original 7 UTs. Given the options and the structure of the question, it’s highly likely it refers to a list that includes J&K and Ladakh, where Daman and Diu was listed as the eighth Union Territory before its merger.

The First Schedule lists the States and Union Territories of India and their respective territories. The order and number of entries in the First Schedule change with state reorganisations and the creation/merger of Union Territories.

As of January 26, 2020, the Union Territories of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu were merged into a single Union Territory named “Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu”. This merger reduced the number of Union Territories to eight: Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu, Delhi, Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh, Lakshadweep, Puducherry. Thus, Daman and Diu no longer exists as a separate entry. The question likely refers to the period between the reorganisation of J&K (2019) and the merger of D&D/DNH (2020).

74. A new Article 372A has been inserted to empower the President to make

A new Article 372A has been inserted to empower the President to make such adaptations and modifications in any law to bring them into accord with the Constitution of India as amended by

[amp_mcq option1=”the Constitution Seventh Amendment Act” option2=”the Constitution Eighth Amendment Act” option3=”the Constitution Ninth Amendment Act” option4=”the Constitution Tenth Amendment Act” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2018

Download PDF Attempt Online

Article 372A was inserted by the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956. This Article empowers the President to make such adaptations and modifications in any law in force immediately before the commencement of the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956, as appear to him to be necessary or expedient for bringing the provisions of that law into accord with the provisions of the Constitution as amended by that Act.

Article 372A facilitates the smooth transition and application of existing laws after significant constitutional changes, particularly those brought about by the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, which was enabled by the Seventh Amendment.

The Seventh Amendment Act, 1956, was a comprehensive amendment that primarily focused on the reorganisation of states on a linguistic basis. It abolished the distinction between Part A, B, C, and D states and introduced the concept of Union Territories. It also made various other changes, making Article 372A necessary to adapt existing laws to the new constitutional structure.

75. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India provi

Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India provides that the Governor of a State may, with the consent of the Government of India, entrust any State functions to that Government or its officers ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Article 172A” option2=”Article 184A” option3=”Article 258A” option4=”Article 281A” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2018

Download PDF Attempt Online

Article 258A of the Constitution of India provides that the Governor of a State may, with the consent of the Government of India, entrust functions to that Government or its officers.

Article 258A allows a State, through its Governor and with the Union’s consent, to delegate its executive functions to the Union government or its functionaries. This is the inverse provision of Article 258, which allows the President to entrust Union functions to a State government or its officers.

Article 258A was inserted by the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956. This amendment aimed at improving the administrative relations between the Union and the States by providing flexibility in the delegation of executive functions.

76. A proviso has been added to which one of the following Articles of the

A proviso has been added to which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India making it possible that the same person may be appointed as Governor for two or more States ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Article 151″ option2=”Article 153″ option3=”Article 155″ option4=”Article 157″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2018

Download PDF Attempt Online

Article 153 states that there shall be a Governor for each State. The Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956, added a proviso to Article 153: “Provided that nothing in this article shall prevent the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more States.” This enabled a single individual to hold the office of Governor for multiple states simultaneously.

The possibility of appointing one person as Governor for more than one state is explicitly allowed by a proviso added to Article 153.

Article 151 deals with the form of accounts of the Union and of the States and audit reports. Article 155 deals with the appointment of the Governor by the President. Article 157 deals with the qualifications for appointment as Governor. Only Article 153, which mandates a Governor for each state, needed the proviso to allow one person to cover multiple states.

77. Which one of the following Constitutional amendments amended a large n

Which one of the following Constitutional amendments amended a large number of provisions in the Constitution of India so as to give effect to the scheme of the States reorganisation and also to certain other changes relating to the High Courts and High Court Judges, the executive powers of the Union and the States and the legislative lists ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Third amendment” option2=”Sixth amendment” option3=”Seventh amendment” option4=”Twelfth amendment” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2018

Download PDF Attempt Online

The Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956, was enacted to implement the recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission and the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. It significantly amended many parts of the Constitution, including abolishing the classification of states into Parts A, B, C, and D, introducing Union Territories, making provisions for common High Courts for multiple states, adjusting executive powers, and modifying entries in the legislative lists.

The Seventh Amendment of 1956 is directly linked to the major reorganisation of Indian states along linguistic lines and introduced fundamental structural changes to the federal setup and related constitutional provisions.

The Third Amendment (1954) related to Schedule VII (Concurrent List). The Sixth Amendment (1956) related to Schedule VII (Union List entry on newspapers). The Twelfth Amendment (1962) incorporated Goa, Daman and Diu as Union Territories. The Seventh Amendment was the most comprehensive amendment dealing with state reorganisation.

78. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

Which one of the following statements is *not* correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”The freedom of speech and expression includes freedom of press.” option2=”The freedoms under Article 19 of the Constitution of India can be claimed *only* by citizens.” option3=”The right to equality under Article 14 can be claimed only by a citizen.” option4=”The right to life and personal liberty can be claimed by any person.” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2018

Download PDF Attempt Online

Option C is not correct. The right to equality under Article 14 (“The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India”) is available to *any person*, which includes both citizens and non-citizens.

Not all fundamental rights are available to all persons. Some rights are available only to citizens, while others are available to any person (citizens and foreigners).

Option A is correct; the Supreme Court has held that the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) includes the freedom of the press. Option B is correct; the six freedoms listed in Article 19(1) (speech & expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, profession) are guaranteed only to citizens. Option D is correct; the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 is available to any person within the territory of India, regardless of citizenship.

79. Clause (1) of Article 31A of the Constitution of India has been replac

Clause (1) of Article 31A of the Constitution of India has been replaced by a new clause and the amendment has been given retrospective effect. As a result of the amendment, in addition to laws relating to the abolition of zamindari, some more categories of welfare legislation have been taken out from the purview of which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Articles 13 and 17″ option2=”Articles 14 and 19″ option3=”Articles 18, 21 and 23″ option4=”Articles 16, 20 and 32″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2018

Download PDF Attempt Online

Article 31A provides for the saving of laws providing for acquisition of estates, etc. It specifically states that no law falling under its specified categories shall be deemed to be void on the ground that it is inconsistent with, or takes away or abridges any of the rights conferred by *Article 14 or Article 19*. Therefore, laws protected under Article 31A are shielded from challenge based on alleged violations of Articles 14 and 19.

Article 31A was introduced to protect agrarian reform laws (like zamindari abolition) from being challenged on the grounds of violating fundamental rights, particularly the right to equality (Article 14) and the freedoms under Article 19 (especially property-related aspects before its removal from Part III).

Article 31A was inserted by the 1st Amendment Act, 1951, primarily to protect laws abolishing zamindari. Subsequent amendments expanded the categories of laws covered by Article 31A to include other agrarian reforms, taking over management of properties, amalgamation of corporations, extinction or modification of rights of directors/shareholders, and mining leases, all of which are protected from challenge under Articles 14 and 19.

80. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the p

Which one of the following statements is *not* correct regarding the power and procedure for Constitutional amendment in India ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Parliament must preserve the basic framework of the Constitution.” option2=”Schedule I of the Constitution of India can be amended by an ordinary legislation.” option3=”A Constitution amendment Bill must be passed by majority prescribed under Article 368 of the Constitution of India.” option4=”The process of Constitutional amendment can be initiated by a State legislature.” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2018

Download PDF Attempt Online

Option D is not correct. As per Article 368 of the Constitution, an amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha), not by a State legislature.

The procedure for constitutional amendment under Article 368 reserves the power of initiation solely with the Union Parliament.

Option A is correct based on the Supreme Court’s ruling in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973). Option B is correct; certain changes to Schedule I (related to the names, boundaries, and territories of states and union territories) can be made by ordinary legislation under Articles 2, 3, and 4, which are explicitly exempted from the procedure of Article 368. Option C is correct; most constitutional amendments require a special majority as prescribed in Article 368, and some also require ratification by states.