Indian Polity and Governance Archives

61. Consider the following statements regarding the time of holding electi

Consider the following statements regarding the time of holding election to fill vacancy in the office of President and the term of office of person elected to fill casual vacancy :

1. An election to fill a vacancy caused by the expiration of the term of office of President shall be completed before the expiration of the term.
2. An election to fill a vacancy in the office of President occurring by reason of his death, resignation or removal, or otherwise shall be held as soon as possible after, and in no case later than six months from, the date of occurrence of the vacancy.
3. The person elected to fill the vacancy shall, subject to the provisions of Article 52, be entitled to hold office for the full term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option4″]

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The correct answer is D.

Statement 1 is correct. Article 62(1) states that an election to fill a vacancy caused by the expiration of the term of office of President shall be completed before the expiration of the term.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 62(2) states that an election to fill a vacancy in the office of President occurring by reason of his death, resignation or removal, or otherwise shall be held as soon as possible after, and in no case later than six months from, the date of occurrence of the vacancy; and the person elected to fill the vacancy shall, subject to the provisions of article 56, be entitled to hold office for the full term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.
Statement 3 is correct. As per the latter part of Article 62(2), read with Article 56(1) which defines the term of office, the person elected to fill a casual vacancy holds office for the full term of five years from the date they assume office, not just for the remainder of the previous President’s term. Article 52 simply states there shall be a President of India; it doesn’t impact the term length of a person filling a vacancy.

The provisions in Article 62 ensure continuity in the office of the President. For a vacancy caused by term expiry, the successor must be elected before the incumbent’s term ends. For a casual vacancy, a time limit of six months is prescribed for holding the election to avoid a prolonged vacancy. The person elected in a casual vacancy enjoys the same full term as a regularly elected President.

62. Consider the following statements regarding the election of Deputy Spe

Consider the following statements regarding the election of Deputy Speaker of the House :

1. The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix, and the Secretary-General shall send to every member notice of this date.
2. At any time before noon on the day preceding the date so fixed, any member may give notice in writing, addressed to the Secretary-General, of a motion that another member be chosen as the Deputy Speaker of the House.
3. The notice shall be seconded by a third member and shall be accompanied by a statement by the member whose name is proposed in the notice that the member proposed is willing to serve as Deputy Speaker.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option1″]

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The correct answer is A.

Statement 1 is correct. Rule 8(1) of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha states: “The election shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix, and the Secretary-General shall send to every member notice of this date.”
Statement 2 is correct. Rule 8(2) of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha states: “At any time before noon on the day preceding the date so fixed, any member may give notice in writing, addressed to the Secretary-General, of a motion that another member be chosen as the Deputy Speaker of the House.”
Statement 3 is incorrect. Rule 8(3) states: “The notice shall be seconded by a member.” It does not require the notice to be seconded by a *third* member, just *a* member. Furthermore, while the proposed member must be willing to serve, the rules do not explicitly state that a written “statement of willingness” must *accompany the notice* given before noon on the preceding day. The willingness is usually confirmed during the process.

The election of the Deputy Speaker follows procedures laid down in the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha (Rule 8). The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant or when the Speaker is absent from a sitting of the House.

63. Consider the following statements in respect of the executive power of

Consider the following statements in respect of the executive power of the Union :

1. The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution.
2. Without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing provision, the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union shall be vested in the President and the exercise thereof shall be regulated by law.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option3″]

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The correct answer is C.

Statement 1 is correct. Article 53(1) of the Constitution states that the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 53(2) states that without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing provision, the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union shall be vested in the President and the exercise thereof shall be regulated by law.

Article 53 defines the executive power of the Union and vests it in the President. While the President is the head of the executive, the power is typically exercised by the President on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers (as per Article 74). The President’s role as supreme commander of the defence forces is a significant executive function, the exercise of which is subject to regulation by law, reflecting the principle of civilian control over the military.

64. Consider the following statements : 1. The State shall, within the l

Consider the following statements :

1. The State shall, within the limits of its economic capacity and development, make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, and in other cases of undeserved want.
2. The State shall make provision for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief.
3. The State shall take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option4″]

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The correct answer is D.

Statement 1 is correct. This statement reflects the principle enshrined in Article 41 of the Constitution, which states that the State shall, within the limits of its economic capacity and development, make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, and in other cases of undeserved want.
Statement 2 is correct. This statement reflects the principle enshrined in Article 42 of the Constitution, which states that the State shall make provision for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief.
Statement 3 is correct. This statement reflects the principle enshrined in Article 40 of the Constitution, which states that the State shall take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are all part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) contained in Part IV of the Indian Constitution. These principles are fundamental for the governance of the country and highlight the social and economic goals that the State should strive to achieve.

65. Consider the following statements regarding principles of policy to be

Consider the following statements regarding principles of policy to be followed by the State :
The State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing

1. that the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
2. that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good.
3. that the operation of the economic system results in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option1″]

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The correct answer is A.

Statement 1 is correct. Article 39(a) of the Constitution states that the State shall direct its policy towards securing that the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 39(b) states that the State shall direct its policy towards securing that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 39(c) states the opposite: that the State shall direct its policy towards securing that the operation of the economic system does *not* result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.

Statements 1, 2, and 3 (as it should be according to the Constitution) are part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), specifically Article 39, which lays down certain principles of policy to be followed by the State to promote the welfare of the people. These principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and are expected to guide the State in making laws.

66. In Article 164 of the Constitution of India, after Clause (1), which o

In Article 164 of the Constitution of India, after Clause (1), which one of the following clauses has been inserted ?

[amp_mcq option1=”The total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed ten percent of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State.” option2=”The total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed thirty percent of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State.” option3=”The total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State.” option4=”The total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed twenty percent of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State.” correct=”option3″]

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Article 164 of the Constitution deals with the provisions relating to Ministers in a State. The Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act, 2003, inserted a new clause, Clause (1A), after Clause (1) of Article 164. This clause specifies the maximum strength of the Council of Ministers in a State. It states that the total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State.

This amendment was brought in to curb the practice of having oversized Councils of Ministers, which was seen as contributing to the instability of governments and increasing public expenditure.

The 91st Amendment Act, 2003, also added Clause (1B) to Article 164, which states that a member of a State Legislative Assembly belonging to any political party who is disqualified for being a member of the Assembly on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a Minister. A similar provision regarding the maximum size of the Council of Ministers (15% of the strength of the Lok Sabha) was also added to Article 75(1A) for the Union Council of Ministers by the same amendment.

67. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India relat

Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India relates to National Commission for Scheduled Castes ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Article 332″ option2=”Article 334″ option3=”Article 336″ option4=”Article 338″ correct=”option4″]

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Article 338 of the Constitution of India provides for the National Commission for Scheduled Castes. Originally, Article 338 provided for a Special Officer for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The 65th Amendment Act, 1990, replaced the Special Officer with a multi-member National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. Later, the 89th Amendment Act, 2003, bifurcated this commission into two separate bodies: the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (under Article 338) and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (under Article 338A).

The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is a constitutional body responsible for investigating and monitoring all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the Scheduled Castes under the Constitution or under any other law or order of the Government and to evaluate the working of those safeguards.

Article 332 deals with the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assemblies of the States. Article 334 deals with the period of reservation of seats and special representation to cease. Article 336 deals with special provision for Anglo-Indian community in certain services.

68. The Constitution (Twenty-sixth Amendment) Act, 1971,

The Constitution (Twenty-sixth Amendment) Act, 1971,

[amp_mcq option1=”omitted Articles 291 and 362″ option2=”substituted Article 365″ option3=”amended Article 367″ option4=”substituted Article 373″ correct=”option1″]

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The Constitution (Twenty-sixth Amendment) Act, 1971, is specifically known for abolishing the concept of privy purses and privileges of the former rulers of Indian states. This was achieved by omitting Article 291, which dealt with privy purses, and Article 362, which guaranteed the rights and privileges of rulers.

The abolition of privy purses and privileges was a significant step towards ensuring equality and dismantling the vestiges of the princely order that continued after their integration into the Union of India.

The initial attempt to abolish privy purses through a Presidential order in 1970 was struck down by the Supreme Court. This led the government to bring about the 26th Constitutional Amendment to achieve the objective.

69. In which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, t

In which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children between the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Article 20A” option2=”Article 21A” option3=”Article 22A” option4=”Article 23A” correct=”option2″]

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Article 21A of the Constitution of India, inserted by the Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002, makes elementary education a fundamental right. It states that “The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine.”

This Article places a constitutional obligation on the State to ensure access to education for children in the specified age group. It gave constitutional backing to the right to education, which was previously only a Directive Principle of State Policy (Article 45).

Following the insertion of Article 21A, the Parliament enacted the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 (RTE Act) to provide the legal framework for implementing this fundamental right. The 86th Amendment also changed the subject matter of Article 45 and added a new fundamental duty under Article 51A(k).

70. Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India has

Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India has been amended to include ‘Sindhi’ as one of the languages ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Fourth Schedule” option2=”Sixth Schedule” option3=”Eighth Schedule” option4=”Tenth Schedule” correct=”option3″]

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The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India lists the official languages of the Republic of India. ‘Sindhi’ was not one of the original 14 languages listed in the Eighth Schedule. It was added to the list by the Constitution (Twenty-first Amendment) Act, 1967.

The Eighth Schedule currently lists 22 languages. Amendments have added languages to this list over time, reflecting linguistic diversity and demands for recognition.

Subsequent amendments that added languages to the Eighth Schedule include the 71st Amendment Act, 1992 (adding Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali) and the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003 (adding Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali). The other schedules mentioned deal with different subjects: Fourth Schedule (Rajya Sabha seat allocation), Sixth Schedule (administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram), and Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law).