201. Consider the following statements regarding resolutions in Parliament

Consider the following statements regarding resolutions in Parliament :

  • 1. All resolutions are motions.
  • 2. Not all resolutions are to be voted.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
Statement 1 is correct, and Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 1 is correct; a resolution is a particular kind of motion. A motion is a formal proposal made to the House requesting it to take some action or express an opinion. A resolution is a motion that, if adopted, becomes an expression of the opinion or determination of the House. Thus, all resolutions originate as motions. Statement 2 is incorrect; generally, all resolutions are put to the vote of the House for adoption. A resolution represents a formal decision or opinion of the House and is passed through voting, unlike some other types of motions which may only lead to a discussion.
A resolution is a type of motion that, when passed, signifies the formal opinion or determination of the House and is typically adopted by voting.
Motions can be substantive, substitute, or subsidiary. Resolutions are usually substantive motions. Examples include resolutions approving government policy, declaring a state of emergency, or expressing disapproval of government actions. Private members can also move resolutions on matters of public interest.

202. Consider the following statements : 1. Money bills cannot be sent ba

Consider the following statements :

  • 1. Money bills cannot be sent back for reconsideration by the President.
  • 2. Money bills have no provision for joint sittings.
  • 3. Defeat of ordinary bill when introduced by a minister may lead to the resignation of the Government.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
All the statements are correct. Statement 1 is correct; under Article 111, the President cannot withhold assent to a Money Bill nor return it for reconsideration; the President must either give assent or withhold assent (though the latter is considered a rare and constitutionally questionable act for Money Bills). Statement 2 is correct; there is no provision for a joint sitting for Money Bills because the Lok Sabha has overriding powers, and a deadlock cannot arise as the bill is deemed passed after 14 days if not returned or if recommendations are not accepted by Lok Sabha. Statement 3 is correct; the defeat of a government bill (introduced by a minister) in the Lok Sabha implies a loss of confidence of the House in the Council of Ministers, which is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, and this typically leads to the resignation of the government.
Money Bills have special procedures regarding Presidential assent and are excluded from the joint sitting mechanism. Defeat of a government bill is a serious matter with potential implications for the government’s stability.
The President giving assent to a Money Bill is mandatory under Article 111, signifying the special status of these bills which are related to the government’s financial proposals already approved by the Lok Sabha. Collective responsibility (Article 75) is a cornerstone of parliamentary democracy; the defeat of a significant government measure indicates that the government may not command the majority necessary to govern.

203. Consider the following statements regarding Money bills : 1. They ca

Consider the following statements regarding Money bills :

  • 1. They can be introduced only after the President’s recommendation.
  • 2. Money bill can be introduced only by a Minister.
  • 3. Speaker’s decision to decide whether a bill is a money bill or not cannot be questioned in the courts.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 1 is correct as a Money Bill can be introduced in Lok Sabha only on the recommendation of the President (Article 117(1) read with Article 110). Statement 2 is correct as Money Bills are essentially government bills and can only be introduced by a minister. Statement 3 is incorrect; while Article 110(3) states that the Speaker’s decision on whether a bill is a Money Bill is final, this finality applies within the legislative process and does not preclude judicial review by the Supreme Court or High Courts on grounds of illegality, malafides, or constitutional infirmity, as held in various judgments.
Money Bills require President’s recommendation and can only be introduced by a minister in Lok Sabha. The Speaker’s decision is final within Parliament but subject to judicial review.
Money Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha has limited powers over Money Bills; it cannot amend or reject a Money Bill but can only make recommendations, which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject. The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill within 14 days.

204. Consider the following statements: 1. Article 117 deals with all the

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. Article 117 deals with all the 3 types of financial bills.
  • 2. Financial bill (I) can be amended or rejected by the Rajya Sabha.
  • 3. All financial bills are not money bills.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
Statements 2 and 3 are correct, while Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 117 primarily deals with Financial Bills (Category I and Category II). Money Bills are defined in Article 110, although they are also a type of financial bill. So, Article 117 does not deal with *all three* types (Money Bill, Financial Bill I, Financial Bill II) comprehensively, rather Article 110 defines Money Bills, and Article 117 covers Financial Bills I and II. Statement 2 is correct; Financial Bill (Category I) is similar to an ordinary bill in that Rajya Sabha can amend or reject it, but it requires the President’s recommendation for introduction. Statement 3 is correct; all financial bills are not Money Bills. Money Bills are a sub-category of financial bills, specifically those dealing *only* with matters listed in Article 110. Financial Bills (Category I and II) are other types of financial bills that do not exclusively contain matters listed in Article 110.
Money Bills (Article 110) are a distinct category from Financial Bills (Article 117). Rajya Sabha has limited powers regarding Money Bills but has more powers over Financial Bills (Category I).
Financial Bill (Category I) contains not only any of the matters specified in Article 110 but also other matters of general legislation. It can only be introduced in Lok Sabha on the recommendation of the President, but in other respects, it is governed by the same procedure as an ordinary bill. Financial Bill (Category II) contains provisions involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India but does not include any of the matters mentioned in Article 110. It can be introduced in either House and does not require the President’s recommendation for introduction, but requires his recommendation for consideration by either House. Rajya Sabha has full powers regarding Financial Bill (Category II).

205. Consider the following statements: 1. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha he

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha heads a joint sitting of both houses only if Speaker, Deputy Speaker and panel of Speakers are absent.
  • 2. Only the President can summon joint sitting.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
Statement 1 is incorrect, and Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Chairman of Rajya Sabha (who is the Vice-President of India) does not preside over a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament. The joint sitting is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. In the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides. In their absence, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides. Statement 2 is correct as Article 108 of the Constitution empowers only the President to summon a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament to resolve a deadlock over an ordinary bill or a financial bill (other than a money bill).
The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting. The President is the authority who summons the joint sitting.
A joint sitting can be summoned in case of disagreement between the two Houses on a bill (excluding Money Bills and Constitution Amendment Bills). Three joint sittings have been held so far: in 1961 (Dowry Prohibition Bill), 1978 (Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill), and 2002 (Prevention of Terrorism Bill).

206. Which one of the following is not charged on the Consolidated Fund of

Which one of the following is not charged on the Consolidated Fund of India ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Salary of CAG” option2=”Grants for Railways” option3=”Administrative expenses of the Supreme Court” option4=”Pensions of the judges of High Courts” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
Expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India does not require annual parliamentary vote, although it can be discussed. Voted expenditure requires parliamentary vote.
A) Salary of CAG: Charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (Article 148(6)).
B) Grants for Railways: Expenditures related to running ministries and departments, including specific grants for Railways (which used to have a separate budget but now merged with the general budget), are typically voted upon by Parliament through the demand for grants.
C) Administrative expenses of the Supreme Court: Charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (Article 146(3)).
D) Pensions of the judges of High Courts: Charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (Article 112(3)(d)). (Salaries of High Court judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of the respective State).
Therefore, Grants for Railways are not charged on the Consolidated Fund of India but are voted expenditures.
– Charged Expenditure: Discussed but not voted in Parliament. For constitutional functionaries/essential services to ensure financial independence.
– Voted Expenditure: Discussed and voted by Parliament. Represents discretionary government spending.
– Examples of Charged Expenditure: President’s emoluments, salaries/pensions of SC/HC judges (pensions only for HC judges), CAG, UPSC Chairman/members, debt charges, sums required to satisfy judgments of courts/tribunals.
The distinction between charged and voted expenditure is important for parliamentary control over government finances. Charged expenditure ensures that essential constitutional offices and obligations are funded without being subject to annual political fluctuations in voting.

207. Consider the following statements : The term ‘budget’ has nowhere be

Consider the following statements :

  • The term ‘budget’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution.
  • Article 112 of the Constitution of India deals with the budget.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
Both statements are correct. Statement 1 is correct because the term ‘Budget’ is not explicitly used in the Constitution of India. Instead, Article 112 refers to the ‘Annual Financial Statement’. Statement 2 is also correct as Article 112 of the Constitution deals with the presentation of the Annual Financial Statement (which is commonly referred to as the Budget) to both Houses of Parliament.
The Constitution uses the term ‘Annual Financial Statement’ in Article 112, not ‘Budget’. Article 112 outlines the procedure for presenting the government’s estimated receipts and expenditures for the coming financial year.
Article 112 requires the President to cause to be laid before both Houses of Parliament an annual financial statement showing the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for the financial year. This statement is divided into two parts: revenue budget and capital budget.

208. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Supplementary Grant – Granted for a special purpose” option2=”Excess Grant – Voted by the Lok Sabha after the financial year” option3=”Vote of Credit – Funds can be made available by re-appropriation” option4=”Token Grant – Blank cheque” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
Let’s evaluate each option:
A) Supplementary Grant – Granted for a special purpose. Incorrect. Supplementary grants are sought when the amount authorized by Parliament through the annual Appropriation Act for a particular service for the current financial year is found to be insufficient.
B) Excess Grant – Voted by the Lok Sabha after the financial year. Correct. If the money spent on any service during a financial year is in excess of the amount granted for that service in that year, the excess expenditure is brought to the notice of Parliament by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG). The Lok Sabha then votes on the excess grant *after* the financial year has concluded.
C) Vote of Credit – Funds can be made available by re-appropriation. Incorrect. A Vote of Credit is granted to meet an unexpected demand upon the resources of India when, due to the magnitude or the indefinite character of the service, the demand cannot be stated with the details ordinarily given in a budget. It is a fresh grant by Parliament, not funds made available through re-appropriation (transferring funds between heads within an approved grant).
D) Token Grant – Blank cheque. Incorrect. A Token Grant is sought when funds are needed for a new service not previously contemplated in the budget, but funds can be made available by re-appropriation from savings in other approved grants. Only a token amount (like Re 1) is voted to allow Parliament to discuss and approve the introduction of the new service; it signifies Parliamentary approval for the principle of the expenditure, not a blank cheque.
– Supplementary Grant: Insufficient funds for an approved service in the current year.
– Excess Grant: Expenditure exceeded the grant in the previous financial year; needs regularization.
– Vote of Credit: Unexpected demand, indefinite nature/magnitude.
– Token Grant: Funds for a new service available via re-appropriation.
Other types of grants include Additional Grant (for a new service not included in the budget), Exceptional Grant (for an unusual service), and Vote on Account (advance grant for a part of the financial year pending final budget approval).

209. Consider the following statements regarding various funds in India :

Consider the following statements regarding various funds in India :

  • Article 266 deals with Contingency Fund of India.
  • For operating Public Account of India and Contingency Fund of India, parliamentary approval is not needed.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
Statement 1: Article 266 deals with the Consolidated Fund and the Public Account of India (and of each State). The Contingency Fund of India is dealt with under Article 267. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2: For operating the Public Account of India and the Contingency Fund of India, parliamentary approval is not needed at the time of withdrawal or disbursement. The Public Account consists of funds held by the government in trust, and expenditures from it do not require appropriation by Parliament. Advances from the Contingency Fund are made to meet unforeseen expenditures pending authorization by Parliament, meaning the executive can withdraw funds without immediate parliamentary approval (though subsequent approval for replenishment is needed from the Consolidated Fund). In contrast, withdrawals from the Consolidated Fund require prior parliamentary appropriation. Therefore, statement 2 is correct in the context of distinguishing operations from these funds compared to the Consolidated Fund.
– Consolidated Fund (Article 266): All revenues received by the government, all loans raised, and all money received in repayment of loans. Expenditure requires parliamentary appropriation.
– Public Account (Article 266): All other public money (e.g., provident funds, small savings). Operated by executive action; no appropriation needed.
– Contingency Fund (Article 267): An imprest fund for meeting unforeseen expenditure. Operated by executive; requires subsequent parliamentary approval for replenishment.
The Public Account transactions do not enter the budget since they do not involve government expenditure or revenue in the strict sense. The Contingency Fund’s corpus is decided by Parliament (currently ₹30,000 crore).

210. Which one of the following ministries of the Government of India has p

Which one of the following ministries of the Government of India has proposed new rules for radar speed guns used to measure vehicle speeds on roads ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Ministry of Consumer Affairs” option2=”Ministry of MSME” option3=”Ministry of Road Transport and Highways” option4=”Ministry of Defence” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) is responsible for framing policies and regulations related to road transport and safety in India, which includes the specifications and usage rules for instruments like radar speed guns used for traffic law enforcement.
MoRTH oversees standards and procedures for road safety and traffic management technology.
Regulations regarding vehicle speed measurement, enforcement devices, and traffic management technologies fall under the purview of the central ministry responsible for road transport. Police departments utilize these rules for enforcement purposes.

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