Indian Polity and Governance Archives

131. The Department of Commerce can decide matters relating to grant of fis

The Department of Commerce can decide matters relating to grant of fiscal concessions in Special Economic Zones with the concurrence of

[amp_mcq option1=”the Minister-in-charge of the Department” option2=”the Department of Economic Affairs” option3=”the Department of Revenue” option4=”the Parliament” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

Download PDF Attempt Online

Matters relating to the grant of fiscal concessions involve taxation and revenue. While the Department of Commerce is the nodal department for SEZ policy, decisions concerning fiscal matters, especially concessions, require the concurrence of the Department of Revenue within the Ministry of Finance.

– Fiscal concessions in SEZs typically involve exemptions or reductions in customs duty, excise duty, income tax, etc.
– The Department of Revenue is responsible for the administration of direct and indirect taxes in India.
– Any decision impacting government revenue requires consultation with and concurrence from the Ministry of Finance, specifically the Department of Revenue for tax-related matters.

– The SEZ Act, 2005 and SEZ Rules specify the framework for fiscal concessions, but administrative decisions and interpretations often require inter-ministerial consultation, particularly with the Ministry of Finance.

132. Which one of the following cadres is not managed by the Ministry of

Which one of the following cadres is not managed by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Indian Economic Service” option2=”Indian Trade Service” option3=”Indian Supply Service” option4=”Indian Inspection Service” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

Download PDF Attempt Online

The Indian Economic Service (IES) is not managed by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It is jointly managed by the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) in the Ministry of Finance and the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.

– The Indian Trade Service (ITS) is a cadre managed by the Department of Commerce under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
– The Indian Supply Service (ISS) was historically associated with the Directorate General of Supplies & Disposals (DGS&D), which was at times under the Ministry of Commerce, but ISS is not a primary cadre managed by the current Ministry of Commerce and Industry structure compared to ITS.
– The Indian Inspection Service is not a standard recognized central civil service cadre managed by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

– The IES cadre provides professionals who handle economic analysis, policy advice, and program implementation in various government ministries and departments.
– The ITS cadre deals with foreign trade promotion and regulation.

133. Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation functions under the administra

Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation functions under the administrative control of which one of the following Ministries/Departments ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Ministry of Mines” option2=”Department of Commerce” option3=”Department of Heavy Industries” option4=”Ministry of Earth Sciences” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

Download PDF Attempt Online

Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation (MMTC) is a Public Sector Undertaking involved in international trade, particularly in minerals, metals, and other commodities. PSUs dealing with trade fall under the administrative control of the Department of Commerce, which is part of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

– The Department of Commerce is responsible for formulating and implementing foreign trade policy and managing various aspects related to India’s international trade.
– MMTC’s primary functions align with the mandate of the Department of Commerce.

– MMTC is one of the two major trading PSUs of the Government of India, the other being State Trading Corporation of India (STC), which is also under the Department of Commerce.

134. Which one of the following Ministries/Departments is concerned with ma

Which one of the following Ministries/Departments is concerned with matters related to the Hotel Corporation of India ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Ministry of Civil Aviation” option2=”Ministry of Tourism” option3=”Department of Public Enterprises” option4=”Department of Commerce” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

Download PDF Attempt Online

The Hotel Corporation of India (HCI) is a public sector undertaking that was historically a subsidiary of Air India. As Air India was under the administrative control of the Ministry of Civil Aviation, matters related to HCI were also primarily concerned with the Ministry of Civil Aviation.

– HCI operates hotels like Centaur Hotels. These were primarily aimed at supporting Air India’s operations and passenger needs.
– The Ministry of Civil Aviation oversees air transport, airports, and associated services, which included Air India and its subsidiaries like HCI before privatization.

– Air India was privatized in 2022 and is now under the Tata Group. However, some assets like HCI hotels were transferred to a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) under the Ministry of Civil Aviation for eventual divestment. The question likely pertains to the traditional administrative setup before these recent changes.

135. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. A person above

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. A person above the age of thirty-five years is eligible for President of India.
2. A person is qualified for election as President of India if he/she is qualified for election as a member of the House of the People.
3. A person is not eligible for election as President of India if he/she holds an office of profit.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”1, 2 and 3″ option4=”3 only” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

Download PDF Attempt Online

All three statements are correct regarding the qualifications for election as President of India, as laid down in Article 58 of the Constitution.

– Statement 1 is correct: Article 58(1)(a) requires a person to have completed the age of thirty-five years.
– Statement 2 is correct: Article 58(1)(b) requires a person to be qualified for election as a member of the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
– Statement 3 is correct: Article 58(2) states that a person shall not be eligible for election as President if he holds any office of profit under the Union or State Government or any local or other authority subject to the control of any of the said Governments. However, certain offices like President, Vice-President, Governor of a State, and Minister for the Union or any State are not considered offices of profit for this purpose.

– Besides qualifications, Article 58 also mentions that the person must be a citizen of India.
– The exceptions to the office of profit rule are explicitly mentioned in Article 58(2) itself.

136. A Member of Lok Sabha does not become disqualified to continue as a

A Member of Lok Sabha does not become disqualified to continue as a Member of the House if the person

[amp_mcq option1=”voluntarily gives up his/her membership of the political party from which he/she was elected” option2=”is expelled by the political party from which he/she had been elected to the House” option3=”joins a political party after being elected as an independent candidate” option4=”abstains from voting contrary to the direction issued by his/her political party” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct answer is B. A Member of Lok Sabha does not automatically become disqualified to continue as a Member of the House merely by being expelled by the political party from which he/she had been elected. The grounds for disqualification under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) are specifically defined.

– Grounds for disqualification under the Tenth Schedule include voluntarily giving up membership of the political party, voting or abstaining contrary to the party whip without prior permission (and such action is not condoned by the party within 15 days), an independent member joining a political party, and a nominated member joining a political party after the expiry of six months from the date of taking seat.
– Expulsion from the political party *itself* is not listed as a direct ground for disqualification under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution. A member who is expelled may still face disqualification if their subsequent actions (e.g., voting against the whip of the party from which they were originally elected) fall under the listed grounds.

– The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, laying down the provisions relating to disqualification on grounds of defection.
– The decision on disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is made by the presiding officer of the House (Speaker in Lok Sabha, Chairman in Rajya Sabha).

137. Which one of the following languages is not recognized in the Eighth

Which one of the following languages is not recognized in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India ?

[amp_mcq option1=”English” option2=”Sanskrit” option3=”Urdu” option4=”Nepali” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct answer is A. English is not recognized in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India.

The Eighth Schedule lists the languages recognized by the Constitution of India. Initially, it had 14 languages. Currently, there are 22 languages listed in the Eighth Schedule. These are: Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Maithili, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu.

English is an official language of the Union (along with Hindi) and is widely used for official purposes and as a medium of instruction and communication, but it does not have the status of a ‘recognized language’ under the Eighth Schedule. Sanskrit, Urdu, and Nepali are all listed in the Eighth Schedule.

138. The right to religious freedom under the Constitution of India does no

The right to religious freedom under the Constitution of India does not mean

[amp_mcq option1=”freedom to practice and profess a religion of one’s own choice” option2=”carrying of Kirpan by a person professing Sikh religion” option3=”preventing the State from making any law regulating economic activity associated with any religion” option4=”freedom to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct answer is C. The right to religious freedom under the Constitution of India does not mean preventing the State from making any law regulating economic activity associated with any religion.

Article 25(1) guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion, subject to public order, morality, health, and other provisions of Part III. Article 25(2) explicitly states that this right does not prevent the State from making any law “regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice” or for social welfare and reform. Therefore, the State *can* regulate economic activities associated with religion, and the right to religious freedom does *not* provide immunity from such regulation.

Options A, B, and D describe aspects that are generally protected under the right to religious freedom (A under Article 25(1), B under Explanation I to Article 25(1), and D under Article 26(a) regarding religious denominations). Option C describes a limitation on the right, meaning the right does not extend to absolute freedom from state regulation of secular activities connected to religion.

139. Consider the following statements : 1. The Constitution of India emp

Consider the following statements :

1. The Constitution of India empowers the Union to entrust its executive function to a State, by its consent.
2. A State cannot entrust its executive function to the Union.

Which of the above statements is/are not correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct answer is B. The question asks which statement/s is/are *not* correct. Statement 2 is not correct.

Statement 1 is correct. Article 258(1) of the Constitution allows the President of India, with the consent of the State Government, to entrust any function to that Government or its officers in relation to any matter to which the executive power of the Union extends.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 258A (inserted by the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956) allows the Governor of a State, with the consent of the Government of India, to entrust any function to that Government or its officers in relation to any matter to which the executive power of the State extends. Thus, a State *can* entrust its executive function to the Union.

These provisions highlight the cooperative federalism envisaged by the Indian Constitution, allowing for mutual entrustment of executive functions between the Union and the States for administrative convenience and efficiency, subject to mutual consent.

140. Information under the Right to Information Act, 2005 cannot be denied

Information under the Right to Information Act, 2005 cannot be denied on which one of the following grounds/cases ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Information relating to copyright subsisting in the State” option2=”Information is likely to impede investigation or apprehension of an offender” option3=”Information is a trade secret” option4=”Personal information affecting privacy of an individual” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct answer is D. While “Personal information affecting privacy of an individual” is listed as a ground for denial under Section 8(1)(j), this exemption is subject to a significant proviso: “unless the Central Public Information Officer or the State Public Information Officer or the Appellate Authority is satisfied that the larger public interest justifies the disclosure of such information”. This means that information, even if personal and affecting privacy, *cannot* be denied if the larger public interest outweighs the potential harm to privacy. This strong public interest override makes it a ground on which information *cannot be universally denied*, unlike potentially more absolute grounds in certain scenarios (though most grounds under Section 8 are also subject to public interest consideration). However, in the context of UPSC questions and interpretation of Section 8(1)(j), the public interest override is heavily emphasized, particularly for information related to public officials performing their duties.

Section 8(1) of the RTI Act lists various grounds for exemption from disclosure. All options A, B, C, and D represent potential grounds for denial under this section. However, the question asks on which ground information *cannot* be denied. This implies looking for a ground that is *not absolute* or where disclosure is mandated under certain conditions despite the initial exemption. The ground of “Personal information affecting privacy of an individual” (Section 8(1)(j)) is explicitly subject to the condition of public interest override, making it a common situation where denial is *not* permissible if public interest is high.

Section 8(1)(d) exempts information including commercial confidence, trade secrets, or intellectual property unless the public interest justifies disclosure. Section 8(1)(h) exempts information which would impede investigation or apprehension of offenders. While these also have nuances, Section 8(1)(j) is perhaps the most frequently debated exemption where the public interest test leads to disclosure even for sensitive information, especially concerning public servants.