Indian Polity and Governance

1. Which among the following is entrusted with the guarding of Indo-Nepal

Which among the following is entrusted with the guarding of Indo-Nepal and Indo-Bhutan borders?

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Commando Battalion for Resolute Action
Central Reserve Police Force
Rapid Action Force
Sashastra Seema Bal
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UPSC SO-Steno – 2018
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The correct answer is Sashastra Seema Bal.
The Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) is one of India’s Central Armed Police Forces responsible for guarding the country’s borders with Nepal and Bhutan.
Other border guarding forces include the Border Security Force (BSF) for India-Pakistan and India-Bangladesh borders, and the Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) for the India-China border. CRPF is primarily an internal security force, while RAF and CoBRA are specialized units of the CRPF for riot control and anti-Naxal operations, respectively.

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2. Which one of the following is not a correct mission of “Ek Bharat Shre

Which one of the following is not a correct mission of “Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat” ?

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To create an environment which promotes learning between States by sharing best practices and experiences
To establish long-term engagements
To showcase the rich heritage and culture, customs and traditions of States
To foster the feeling of nationhood
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While fostering the feeling of nationhood is the ultimate goal and spirit behind the “Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat” initiative, it is usually considered the overarching objective or outcome rather than a specific ‘mission’ listed among the program’s operational goals. The missions are typically described in terms of activities undertaken to achieve this goal.
– “Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat” is a program aimed at enhancing interaction and mutual understanding between people of different states and Union Territories.
– Its stated objectives (missions) include celebrating unity in diversity, promoting the spirit of national integration, showcasing rich heritage and culture, establishing long-term engagements, creating an environment for learning by sharing best practices.
– Options A, B, and C directly align with these listed or clearly implied specific missions/objectives of the program.
Option D describes the intended outcome or purpose of the program. While crucial, it is distinct from the specific actions and environments (like cultural exchange, learning, engagement) that constitute the core ‘missions’ or activities undertaken under the initiative. In competitive exams, such subtle distinctions between overarching goals and specific program objectives are sometimes tested.

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3. Supreme Court Rules, 2013 replacing the 1966 Rules, have been framed u

Supreme Court Rules, 2013 replacing the 1966 Rules, have been framed under which Article of the Constitution of India ?

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Article 145
Article 144
Article 143
Article 142
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The Supreme Court Rules, including the 2013 Rules which replaced the 1966 Rules, are framed under Article 145 of the Constitution of India.
– Article 145 of the Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court, with the approval of the President, to make rules for regulating generally the practice and procedure of the Court.
– These rules cover various aspects such as the persons practicing before the Court, the procedure for hearing appeals and other matters, the conditions for entertaining appeals, proceedings relating to contempt, and so on.
– The Supreme Court Rules, 2013, detail the procedural aspects for filing cases, hearings, and overall functioning of the court.
Article 142 deals with the Supreme Court’s power to enforce decrees and orders; Article 143 deals with the President’s power to consult the Supreme Court; Article 144 mandates civil and judicial authorities to act in aid of the Supreme Court. Only Article 145 explicitly grants the rule-making power to the Supreme Court regarding its own procedure.

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4. The motto “Satyameva Jayate” – Truth alone Triumphs is written in whic

The motto “Satyameva Jayate” – Truth alone Triumphs is written in which one of the following scripts ?

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Kannada
Marathi
Telugu
Devanagari
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The motto “Satyameva Jayate” is written in the Devanagari script.
– “Satyameva Jayate” (सत्यमेव जयते) means “Truth alone triumphs”.
– It is a mantra from the ancient Indian scripture Mundaka Upanishad.
– It is the national motto of India.
– It is inscribed in Devanagari script at the base of the State Emblem of India, which is based on the Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath.
Devanagari is a widely used script in India for languages like Hindi, Marathi, Nepali, Sanskrit, etc. The other options (Kannada, Marathi, Telugu) are names of languages, while Kannada and Telugu also refer to their respective scripts. Marathi language uses the Devanagari script.

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5. Which one among the following Union Ministries launched the ‘Services

Which one among the following Union Ministries launched the ‘Services e-Health Assistance and Teleconsultation (SeHAT)’ initiative in India ?

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Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Ministry of Defence
Ministry of Science and Technology
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
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The ‘Services e-Health Assistance and Teleconsultation (SeHAT)’ initiative is a teleconsultation service launched specifically for the armed forces personnel, veterans, and their families. Given its focus on the ‘Services’ (armed forces), the responsible ministry is the Ministry of Defence.
The SeHAT initiative is a telemedicine service aimed at providing healthcare consultations to the armed forces community.
The SeHAT platform aims to provide convenient and accessible healthcare advice by connecting patients with doctors via tele-mode, reducing the need for physical travel, especially beneficial for those in remote areas or with mobility issues. It is part of the broader digital health initiatives in India.

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6. Consider the following statements regarding the NITI Aayog : The Sta

Consider the following statements regarding the NITI Aayog :

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  • The State Governments and the local bodies must be made equal partners in the development process through the following changes :
  • 1. Understanding and supporting their developmental needs and aspirations.
  • 2. Incorporating varied local realities into national policies and programmes with the required flexibility.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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Both statements 1 and 2 are correct regarding the NITI Aayog’s objective of making State Governments and local bodies equal partners.
NITI Aayog was established with the aim of fostering cooperative federalism and enabling greater participation of states in the policy-making process. Statement 1 directly reflects this goal by emphasizing understanding and supporting states’ specific needs and aspirations. Statement 2 reflects the shift from a centralized planning approach to one that incorporates local realities and allows flexibility in implementing national programs, another core principle of NITI Aayog’s design.
NITI Aayog serves as a think tank that provides policy advice and encourages states’ active involvement in development strategies, moving away from the top-down approach of the former Planning Commission.

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7. The disclosure of information may be made keeping in mind the provisio

The disclosure of information may be made keeping in mind the provisions of which of the following Sections of the RTI Act, 2005?

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Sections 5 to 7
Sections 8 to 11
Sections 12 to 15
Sections 16 to 19
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The correct answer is B. Sections 8 to 11 of the RTI Act, 2005, deal with the grounds for exemption from disclosure, partial access, and third-party information, which are crucial provisions to keep in mind when deciding whether information can be disclosed.
– Section 8 lists various categories of information that are exempted from disclosure (e.g., affecting sovereignty, security, commercial confidence, personal information, etc.).
– Section 9 provides another ground for rejection if the request involves infringement of copyright.
– Section 10 allows for partial disclosure (severability) where part of the information is exempt but the non-exempt part can be reasonably severed.
– Section 11 deals with the procedure for handling requests involving information that relates to or has been supplied by a third party, requiring consultation with the third party in certain cases before disclosure.
While Sections 5-7 deal with the mechanics of making and processing a request, Sections 8-11 are the critical sections that determine *what* information can be disclosed and under what conditions, by outlining the circumstances under which disclosure can be refused or modified. Therefore, compliance with Sections 8 to 11 is essential for lawful disclosure under the Act.

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8. CAG paras dealing with information about the issues of sovereignty and

CAG paras dealing with information about the issues of sovereignty and integrity of India, the security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State and information covered under which one of the following Sections of the RTI Act, 2005 is exempted from disclosure?

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Section 2
Section 4
Section 6
Section 8
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The correct answer is D. Section 8 of the Right to Information Act, 2005, lists the exemptions from disclosure, including information that would prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State, etc.
– Section 8(1) of the RTI Act provides a list of grounds upon which a public authority may refuse to disclose information.
– Section 8(1)(a) exempts information, disclosure of which would prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State, relation with foreign State or lead to incitement to an offence.
– The question mentions CAG paras dealing with such sensitive information. Information contained in CAG reports is generally accessible under RTI, but specific paras dealing with matters covered under exemption clauses like Section 8(1)(a) are exempted from disclosure.
Section 8(1) contains several other clauses listing various exemptions, such as information forbidden to be published by any court of law, information which would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament or the State Legislature, information relating to commercial confidence, trade secrets or intellectual property, information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship, information received in confidence from a foreign Government, information which would endanger the life or physical safety of any person, information which would impede the process of investigation or prosecution of offenders, Cabinet papers, personal information which has no relationship to any public activity or interest, etc. These exemptions are subject to the public interest override clause in Section 8(2).

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9. Which one of the following Sections of RTI Act, 2005 lays down the inf

Which one of the following Sections of RTI Act, 2005 lays down the information which should be disclosed by public authorities on a suo motu or proactive basis?

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Section 2(1)(a)
Section 3(1)(c)
Section 4(1)(b)
Section 5(1)(d)
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The correct answer is C. Section 4(1)(b) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, explicitly lays down the list of information categories that every public authority shall publish suo motu or proactively.
– Section 4 of the RTI Act outlines the obligations of public authorities, including the requirement for proactive disclosure of information.
– Sub-section (1) of Section 4 lists the types of information to be disclosed proactively.
– Clause (b) of Section 4(1) provides a detailed list of 17 categories of information that every public authority *must* publish within 120 days of the enactment of the Act. This includes details about its organization, functions, powers, duties, decision-making process, norms, rules, regulations, records held, categories of documents, constitution of its boards/councils/committees, directory of officers/employees, monthly remuneration, budget, subsidies, recipients of concessions, particulars of facilities for obtaining information, and the details of CPIOs/APIOs.
Proactive disclosure under Section 4 is considered the bedrock of the RTI regime, aiming to minimize the need for individual requests by making essential information freely available in the public domain. This includes publication through various means, including the internet.

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10. In compliance with the provisions of which one of the following sectio

In compliance with the provisions of which one of the following sections of the RTI Act, 2005, is it advised that public authorities may proactively disclose the details of foreign and domestic official tours undertaken by minister(s) and officials of the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government of India and above and the heads of the Departments, since 1st January 2012?

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Section 4
Section 5
Section 6
Section 7
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The correct answer is A. The proactive disclosure of details of official tours by ministers and senior officials is advised in compliance with the general obligation for transparency and public information under Section 4 of the RTI Act, 2005.
– Section 4 of the RTI Act mandates public authorities to proactively disclose a wide range of information, reducing the need for citizens to file specific requests.
– While Section 4(1)(b) lists specific categories for mandatory publication, the spirit of Section 4 encourages public authorities to publish more information voluntarily.
– The disclosure of tour details falls under the broader principles of transparency regarding the functioning of the public authority and the expenditure incurred, which is encouraged by Section 4. The specific advisory regarding tour details is an example of implementing the proactive disclosure requirement under this section.
Detailed guidelines from the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) have reinforced the proactive disclosure requirements under Section 4. Disclosure of tour details, expenditure, minutes of meetings, etc., are often included in these guidelines as examples of information that should be made available suo motu to enhance transparency and accountability. This practice is rooted in the foundational principle of proactive disclosure outlined in Section 4.

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