Environment and Ecology Archives

41. Consider the following statements : Statement-1: According to the Uni

Consider the following statements :

Statement-1: According to the United Nations ‘World Water Development Report, 2022’. India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year.

Statement-II : India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world’s population living in its territory.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2023

Download PDF Attempt Online

Statement-I is correct regarding India’s significant groundwater extraction as highlighted by the UN report. However, Statement-II is incorrect because the primary reason for India’s high groundwater withdrawal is for irrigation, not solely for drinking water and sanitation needs.

– Statement I is correct: Reports like the UN World Water Development Report 2022 consistently identify India as the largest user of groundwater globally, accounting for roughly a quarter of the world’s total withdrawal.
– Statement II is incorrect: While satisfying the needs of a large population for drinking water and sanitation is important, the overwhelming majority (estimated at 80-90%) of groundwater extraction in India is for agricultural irrigation to grow food crops. The withdrawal for drinking water and sanitation, though critical, constitutes a much smaller portion of the total.

Unsustainable groundwater extraction, driven primarily by agricultural needs and facilitated by subsidized electricity and water pumps, is a major environmental challenge in India, leading to declining water tables and water stress in many regions. Addressing this requires reforms in agricultural water use practices, pricing, and management.

42. With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements:

With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements:

1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.
3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2023

Download PDF Attempt Online

All three statements describe potential and current applications of green hydrogen. Green hydrogen, produced using renewable energy, is a versatile energy carrier.

– Hydrogen can be used as a direct fuel in modified or specially designed internal combustion engines.
– Hydrogen can be blended with natural gas (methane) and used in existing gas infrastructure and appliances for heating or power generation, reducing the carbon intensity of the natural gas stream.
– Hydrogen is a key fuel for hydrogen fuel cells, which electrochemically convert hydrogen and oxygen into electricity, water, and heat, commonly used in fuel cell vehicles and stationary power generation.

Green hydrogen is considered a crucial part of future decarbonization efforts, particularly in hard-to-abate sectors like heavy industry, transport, and long-term energy storage. Its versatility allows for use in various energy applications, either directly, blended, or via conversion technologies like fuel cells.

43. Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution : 1. G

Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution :

1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
3. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2023

Download PDF Attempt Online

All three statements regarding mercury pollution are correct. Gold mining, coal-based thermal power plants, and the lack of a known safe exposure level are well-established facts related to mercury pollution and health impacts.

– Artisanal and small-scale gold mining (ASGM) is a major global source of anthropogenic mercury emissions due to the use of mercury to extract gold.
– Combustion of coal in power plants releases mercury that is naturally present in coal.
– According to the World Health Organization (WHO), there is no known safe level of exposure to elemental (metallic) mercury, as it is toxic even at very low concentrations.

Mercury is a persistent, bioaccumulative toxic substance. It can travel long distances in the atmosphere and settle in ecosystems, where it can be converted to highly toxic methylmercury, which bioaccumulates in food chains, particularly in fish. The Minamata Convention on Mercury is an international treaty designed to protect human health and the environment from anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds.

44. Consider the following activities: 1. Spreading finely ground basalt

Consider the following activities:

1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively
2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters

How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2023

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct answer is C) All three.

Let’s evaluate each activity:
1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively: This is a climate change mitigation technique known as enhanced rock weathering. Crushed silicate rocks like basalt react with CO2 from the atmosphere and soil to form stable carbonate minerals, effectively sequestering carbon. Spreading it on agricultural land also potentially improves soil health. This is considered for carbon capture and sequestration.
2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime: This is a form of Ocean Alkalinity Enhancement (OAE), a proposed geoengineering technique for carbon removal. Increasing ocean alkalinity enhances its capacity to absorb atmospheric CO2. This is discussed for carbon capture and sequestration.
3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters: This is a description of Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS). CO2 emissions from industrial sources are captured and stored underground in geological formations such as depleted oil/gas fields, saline aquifers, or, as mentioned here, abandoned mines (though less common than saline aquifers). Injecting it as carbonated water is one variation, aiming for mineral carbonation. This is a well-established concept for carbon capture and sequestration.
All three activities are actively discussed and researched as methods for carbon capture and sequestration.

These methods fall under the broader categories of Carbon Capture, Utilization, and Storage (CCUS) or Greenhouse Gas Removal (GGR) techniques, aiming to reduce the concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere.

45. With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider t

With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements :

1. None of them uses seawater.
2. None of them is set up in water-stressed district.
3. None of them is privately owned.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2023

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct answer is D) None.

Let’s examine each statement:
1. None of them uses seawater: This is incorrect. Coastal thermal power plants like the Mundra plant in Gujarat or the Ennore plant in Tamil Nadu use seawater for cooling.
2. None of them is set up in water-stressed district: This is incorrect. Many thermal power plants are located in regions facing water scarcity, leading to significant environmental and social concerns regarding their water consumption.
3. None of them is privately owned: This is incorrect. India has a significant number of privately owned coal-based thermal power plants, operated by companies like Tata Power, Adani Power, Reliance Power, etc., alongside plants owned by public sector undertakings like NTPC.
Since all three statements are incorrect, none of them are correct.

The water usage of thermal power plants, especially in water-stressed areas, is a major environmental issue in India. Many regulatory efforts are being made to improve water use efficiency in these plants. The Indian power sector is a mix of public and private ownership.

46. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : The soil in tropical

Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients.
Statement-II : The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter to decompose quickly.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2023

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct answer is D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Statement I is incorrect. Soils in tropical rainforests are typically poor in nutrients. The high rainfall leads to rapid leaching of minerals, and the high temperatures and humidity cause very rapid decomposition of organic matter. Nutrients are quickly taken up by the dense vegetation and are stored primarily in the biomass, rather than accumulating in the soil. When the vegetation is cleared, the soil quickly loses its fertility.
Statement II is correct. High temperatures and abundant moisture create ideal conditions for microorganisms (bacteria, fungi) to decompose dead organic matter (leaves, wood, dead animals) very quickly. This rapid decomposition prevents the build-up of a thick layer of nutrient-rich humus in the soil.

The rapid decomposition and nutrient uptake by plants create a fast nutrient cycling system in tropical rainforests. While the biomass is rich in nutrients, the underlying soil is often nutrient-poor and acidic, contrasting sharply with soils in temperate forests where decomposition is slower, allowing for nutrient accumulation in the soil.

47. Consider the following heavy industries: 1. Fertilizer plants 2. Oil r

Consider the following heavy industries:
1. Fertilizer plants
2. Oil refineries
3. Steel plants
Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2023

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct answer is C) All three.

Green hydrogen, produced using renewable energy sources, is a key solution for decarbonizing heavy industries which are difficult to electrify and heavily reliant on fossil fuels.
Fertilizer plants: Production of ammonia (NH3), a primary component of fertilizers, currently uses hydrogen derived mainly from natural gas (steam methane reforming), a process that emits significant CO2. Green hydrogen can directly replace this, making ammonia production carbon-free.
Oil refineries: Hydrogen is used in refining processes like hydrocracking and hydrotreating to remove impurities and upgrade fuel products. Replacing grey hydrogen with green hydrogen is a direct pathway to reduce emissions in refineries.
Steel plants: Traditional steel production is a major source of CO2 emissions due to the use of coal as a reducing agent. Green hydrogen can be used as a reducing agent in direct reduced iron (DRI) processes, replacing coal and enabling the production of “green steel” with significantly lower emissions.

Decarbonizing heavy industries is crucial for achieving global climate goals. Green hydrogen offers a promising avenue as a clean fuel and feedstock, capable of reducing or eliminating process emissions in these sectors. Significant research, development, and pilot projects are underway globally to implement green hydrogen solutions in fertilizer, refining, and steel production.

48. ‘Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Spe

‘Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?

The International Union for Conservation of Nature

The United Nations Environment Programme

The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development

The World Wide Fund for Nature

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2023

Download PDF Attempt Online

The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) belongs to The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of experts that works on invasive alien species. It is one of the specialist groups within the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). The Global Invasive Species Database is a project managed by the ISSG.

The IUCN is a membership Union composed of both government and civil society organizations. It provides knowledge and tools to enable human progress, economic development and nature conservation to take place together. The SSC is one of six commissions of the IUCN, focused on conservation planning and policy recommendations for species.

49. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Marsupials are not nat

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.
Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2023

Download PDF Attempt Online

Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Statement-I: Marsupials are a group of mammals native primarily to Australia, New Guinea, and the Americas. They are characterized by the pouch (marsupium) in which most females carry and nurse their young. Marsupials are not naturally found in the Indian subcontinent. This statement is correct.
Statement-II: This statement is incorrect. Marsupials inhabit a wide variety of environments, including forests, woodlands, grasslands, deserts, and even urban areas, not just montane grasslands. Furthermore, they coexist with various predators in their native habitats. Their survival is not contingent upon the absence of predators.

Well-known marsupials include kangaroos, koalas, wallabies (Australia/New Guinea), and opossums (Americas). Their ecological adaptations are diverse, allowing them to thrive in different climates and landscapes.

50. Consider the following statements: Once the Central Government notifie

Consider the following statements: Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’
1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
2. hunting is not allowed in such area
3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

3 only

1, 2 and 3

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2023

Download PDF Attempt Online

Community Reserves are areas declared under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 (as amended in 2002).
Statement 1 is incorrect. According to Section 36C(1)(a) of the Act, where the State Government declares any community land or private land as a Community Reserve, the area shall be constituted and managed by a Community Reserve Management Committee. While the Chief Wildlife Warden plays a crucial administrative and oversight role, the ‘governing authority’ of the reserve is the Management Committee.

Statement 2 is correct. Hunting is strictly prohibited in a Community Reserve (Section 36C(3)(a)). This is a fundamental protective measure under the Act.

Statement 3 is correct. The Act allows for traditional practices, including the collection of non-timber forest produce, that are consistent with the conservation of wildlife and its habitat, provided they do not adversely affect the wildlife therein. The notification process and management involve consulting the community and incorporating their customary rights and practices where compatible with conservation. (See Section 36C(3)(b) and the intent behind involving local communities).

– Community Reserves are declared under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
– They are managed by a Community Reserve Management Committee.
– Hunting is prohibited.
– Traditional uses like NTFP collection are allowed if compatible with conservation.

Community Reserves are areas that are typically outside national parks and wildlife sanctuaries, but adjacent to them or connecting them, and are important for conservation. They aim to involve local communities in conservation efforts and are jointly managed.