101. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of t

As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.” option2=”The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.” option3=”The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.” option4=”It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2019
Statement C is correct.
Statement A is incorrect. The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, mandate waste generators to segregate waste into three streams: wet waste (biodegradable), dry waste (including plastic, paper, metal, wood), and domestic hazardous waste.

Statement B is incorrect. The Rules apply to every urban local body, cantonment board, railway colony, every airport, every port and harbour, every special economic zone, every State and Central Government organisations, and every industrial township, and other entities generating solid waste. Their applicability is much wider than just notified urban local bodies and industrial townships.

Statement C is correct. Schedule I of the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, provides detailed and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for solid waste processing and disposal facilities (like landfills), covering aspects related to environment, land use, and social impact.

Statement D is incorrect. While the rules promote decentralization and managing waste within the urban local body, they do not impose a mandatory prohibition on the movement of waste from one district to another. Movement for regional processing facilities or specific types of waste is permitted subject to regulations and permissions.

The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 replaced the Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules, 2000. Key aspects include source segregation, responsibility of waste generators, role of urban local bodies, waste pickers integration, promotion of composting and bio-methanation, and standards for processing and disposal facilities.

102. Consider the following statements: The Environment Protection Act, 198

Consider the following statements:
The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to

  • 1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought
  • 2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2019
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Statement 1 is correct. The Environment Protection Act, 1986 (EPA) is an umbrella Act that gives broad powers to the Central Government to take all such measures as it deems necessary for the purpose of protecting and improving the quality of the environment. While the Act itself might not detail the exact procedure for public participation, it empowers the Central Government to make rules (Section 25) to carry out the purposes of the Act, which can and do include requirements for public consultation in processes like Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) notifications issued under the Act. Thus, the Act empowers the government to state the requirement and lay down the procedure for public participation through rules and notifications framed under it.

Statement 2 is correct. Section 3(2)(iv) of the Environment Protection Act, 1986, explicitly empowers the Central Government to “lay down standards for the quality of environment in its various aspects, lay down standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources whatsoever”. This is a direct and core power granted by the Act.

The EPA, 1986 was enacted following the Bhopal Gas Tragedy and is a crucial piece of legislation for environmental governance in India. It delegates significant authority to the Central Government to coordinate activities of state governments, plan and execute nationwide programmes, and set standards for environmental quality and pollution control.

103. Consider the following statements: 1. As per recent amendment to the

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
  • 2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
  • 3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2019
Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian Forest (Amendment) Act, 2017 removed bamboo grown in non-forest areas from the definition of ‘tree’, thereby exempting it from requiring felling and transit permits under the Indian Forest Act, 1927. Bamboo grown in forest areas continues to be classified as a ‘tree’ under the unamended part of the Act, but rights over bamboo as Minor Forest Produce in forest areas are governed by the Forest Rights Act, 2006. The statement claiming a general right to fell bamboos grown on forest areas might be misleading or incorrect as per the 2017 amendment’s primary focus on non-forest areas and the nuances of rights under FRA 2006.

Statement 2 is correct. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 explicitly defines ‘Minor Forest Produce’ (MFP) to include “bamboo, brush wood, stumps, cane, tussar, cocoons, honey, wax, lac, tendu or kendu leaves, medicinal plants and herbs, roots, tubers and the like”. Thus, as per this Act, bamboo is a minor forest produce.

Statement 3 is correct. The Forest Rights Act, 2006, recognizes and vests forest rights and occupation in forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers. Section 3(1)(c) specifically recognizes the right of ownership, access to collect, use, and dispose of minor forest produce, which has been traditionally collected within or outside village boundaries.

The classification of bamboo has been a point of contention. Historically, the Indian Forest Act, 1927, classified bamboo as a ‘tree’. The Forest Rights Act, 2006, classified it as ‘Minor Forest Produce’. The 2017 amendment to the Indian Forest Act resolved the classification conflict *only for bamboo grown outside forest areas*, classifying it as grass in such areas to promote cultivation and trade. For bamboo within forest areas, the FRA 2006’s classification as MFP and the rights granted under it apply.

104. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG

In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:

  • 1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
  • 2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
  • 3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
  • 4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 3 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”2 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2019
The correct answer is B) 2 and 3 only.
Hydrogen-enriched Compressed Natural Gas (H-CNG) is a fuel mixture being explored to reduce emissions from vehicles.
1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions: Incorrect. While H-CNG significantly *reduces* CO emissions compared to pure CNG, it does not typically *eliminate* them entirely. Elimination is a very strong claim.
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions: Correct. Blending hydrogen with CNG reduces the carbon content per unit energy, leading to lower CO2 emissions. Hydrogen combustion itself produces only water. H-CNG also leads to more complete combustion of the natural gas component, resulting in reduced unburnt hydrocarbon (HC) emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses: Correct. Studies and trials have shown that blends of hydrogen up to 20% by volume (which is one-fifth) with CNG can be used in existing CNG engines with minimal or no modifications, while achieving significant emission reductions.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG: Incorrect. Hydrogen production and blending typically make H-CNG more expensive than pure CNG. The cost is a major barrier to its widespread adoption.
H-CNG offers advantages in terms of reduced emissions (CO, HC, NOx, CO2) and improved engine performance (higher octane number). However, challenges remain regarding hydrogen production costs, infrastructure for storage and distribution, and compatibility with existing vehicle technology at higher blend ratios. Based on the analysis, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

105. Consider the following statements: 1. Agricultural soils release ni

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
  • 2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
  • 3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”4 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2019
The correct answer is D) 1, 2 and 3.
This question assesses the understanding of sources of atmospheric nitrogen compounds.
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment: Correct. Nitrous oxide (N₂O), a significant greenhouse gas, is released from agricultural soils through microbial processes (nitrification and denitrification), especially when nitrogen fertilizers are used. Other nitrogen oxides (like NO and NO₂) can also be released, though N₂O is the most significant from soil.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment: Correct. Livestock, particularly cattle, excrete significant amounts of nitrogen in urine and feces. This nitrogen is converted to ammonia (NH₃) through microbial processes in manure and released into the atmosphere.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment: Correct. Similar to cattle, poultry operations generate large amounts of nitrogen-rich manure, which leads to the release of ammonia and other reactive nitrogen compounds into the atmosphere. Poultry litter management is a major source of atmospheric ammonia.
All three statements describe significant anthropogenic sources of nitrogen compounds that impact the environment, contributing to air pollution, acid rain, eutrophication, and climate change (in the case of N₂O). Therefore, all three statements are correct. The options provided seem to have a typo with “4 only”; assuming option D represents “1, 2 and 3”, that is the correct choice.

106. Consider the following statements : 1. Under Ramsar Convention, it

Consider the following statements :

  • 1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
  • 2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
  • 3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2019
The correct answer is B) 2 and 3 only.
Let’s analyze each statement regarding the Ramsar Convention and India’s Wetlands Rules:
1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India: Incorrect. The Ramsar Convention requires contracting parties to designate suitable wetlands for inclusion in the List of Wetlands of International Importance (Ramsar Sites) and to promote the conservation and wise use of all wetlands in their territory. It does not mandate the protection and conservation of *all* wetlands in a strictly legal, uniform sense under the Convention itself, but encourages national actions. The primary obligation under the convention relates to the listed sites and promoting general wetland conservation.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention: Correct (interpreted in a broader sense). While not framed based on specific *recommendations* for these exact rules, the Rules were developed by the Indian government as a step towards fulfilling its commitments as a signatory to the Ramsar Convention, which encourages parties to establish national wetland policies and legislative frameworks. The Rules cite India’s commitments under the Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority: Correct. The 2010 Rules explicitly included the “drainage area or catchment region of the wetlands as determined by the concerned State Government or the Union territory Administration” within the scope of the regulated areas (Rule 3(1)(i) explanation). This provision was later removed in the 2017 rules.
Statement 1 is too strong; the Convention encourages but doesn’t mandate conservation of *all* wetlands in a blanket manner. Statement 3 is a verifiable fact about the 2010 rules. Statement 2 is plausible as the rules are India’s implementation response to being a Ramsar signatory. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

107. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazop

In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as

[amp_mcq option1=”pesticides in agriculture” option2=”preservatives in processed foods” option3=”fruit-ripening agents” option4=”moisturising agents in cosmetics” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2019
The correct answer is A) pesticides in agriculture.
Carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate, and triazophos are all chemical compounds widely known and used as pesticides, particularly insecticides and acaricides, in agriculture to control various pests that damage crops. These chemicals belong to the organophosphate and carbamate classes of pesticides, known for their toxicity.
Due to their high toxicity to humans and non-target organisms, including pollinators and aquatic life, the use of these chemicals is viewed with apprehension and has been restricted or banned in many countries, including India, although illegal use may still occur. They are not used as preservatives in processed foods, common fruit-ripening agents (like ethylene), or moisturising agents in cosmetics. Their primary application is in agriculture for pest control.

108. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released

Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into environment?

[amp_mcq option1=”They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.” option2=”They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.” option3=”They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.” option4=”They are often found to be used as food adulterants.” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2019
The correct answer is A) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
Microbeads are tiny plastic particles, typically less than 5 mm in diameter, used in various products like cosmetics, toothpastes, and abrasive cleaners. When washed down drains, they enter wastewater systems but are often too small to be filtered out. They are then released into rivers, lakes, and oceans. Once in aquatic environments, microbeads persist for a very long time and pose a significant threat to marine life.
Aquatic organisms, from small zooplankton to fish and birds, can ingest microbeads, mistaking them for food. Ingested plastic can cause physical harm, block digestive tracts, and leach harmful chemicals. Microbeads also absorb pollutants from the surrounding water, concentrating toxins which can then be transferred up the food chain. This biomagnification of toxins is a major environmental concern. The widespread presence and persistence of microbeads in marine environments necessitate efforts to reduce their use and prevent their release. Concerns about skin cancer, absorption by crop plants, or use as food adulterants are not the primary reasons for concern about microbeads in the environment.

109. Consider the following pairs : Wildlife Naturally found in 1

Consider the following pairs :

WildlifeNaturally found in
1. Blue-finned MahseerCauvery River
2. Irrawaddy DolphinChambal River
3. Rusty-spotted CatEastern Ghats

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2019
Option C is correct. Pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.
– Pair 1: Blue-finned Mahseer (*Tor remadevii*) is a species of Mahseer considered endemic to the Cauvery river basin in the Western Ghats. This pair is correctly matched.
– Pair 2: Irrawaddy Dolphin (*Orcaella brevirostris*) is found in coastal areas, estuaries, and certain rivers in Southeast Asia and parts of the Bay of Bengal. In India, they are notably found in Chilika Lake. They are *not* naturally found in the Chambal River. The Ganges River Dolphin is found in the Chambal. This pair is incorrectly matched.
– Pair 3: The Rusty-spotted Cat (*Prionailurus rubiginosus*) is one of the smallest wild cat species and is found in India (including parts of the Eastern and Western Ghats), Sri Lanka, and Nepal. This pair is correctly matched.
– The Chambal River is a designated protected area for the Ganges River Dolphin.
– The Rusty-spotted Cat is listed as ‘Near Threatened’ by the IUCN.
– Various species of Mahseer are found across Indian rivers; accurate identification and distribution can be complex, but *Tor remadevii* is well-documented in the Cauvery system.

110. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?

Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?

[amp_mcq option1=”Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve” option2=”Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park” option3=”Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park” option4=”Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2019
Option A is correct. The Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve is located in the southern part of the Western Ghats and includes the Neyyar, Peppara, and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries in Kerala, and the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve in Tamil Nadu, among other areas.
– Biosphere Reserves often encompass multiple protected areas like National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
– Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve spans across Kerala and Tamil Nadu in the Western Ghats.
– The constituent sites listed in Option A are geographically located within this region and are part of the Biosphere Reserve.
– Option B lists sites primarily associated with the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve and areas slightly north of Agasthyamala.
– Options C and D list protected areas primarily located in the Eastern Ghats and parts of the Deccan Plateau, far from the Agasthyamala region.