Environment and Ecology

91. Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Social

Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’?
It is a measure, in monetary value, of the

[amp_mcq option1=”long-term damage done by a tonne of CO₂ emissions in a given year.” option2=”requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels.” option3=”efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place.” option4=”contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.” correct=”option1″]

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The term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’ is best described as a measure, in monetary value, of the long-term damage done by a tonne of CO₂ emissions in a given year.
The Social Cost of Carbon (SCC) is an economic metric used to estimate the full cost of carbon emissions, including the future impacts of climate change such as changes in agricultural productivity, human health effects, property damage from increased flood risk, and the value of ecosystem services. It attempts to put a monetary value on the future harm caused by emitting one additional unit (typically a tonne) of carbon dioxide today.
SCC estimates are complex and involve predicting future climate impacts and discounting future damages to their present value. They are used by policymakers to evaluate the costs and benefits of policies that affect greenhouse gas emissions, such as carbon taxes, emissions trading schemes, or regulations on pollution.

92. According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the followi

According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels ?
1. Cassava
2. Damaged wheat grains
3. Groundnut seeds
4. Horse gram
5. Rotten potatoes
6. Sugar beet
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 2, 5 and 6 only” option2=”1, 3, 4 and 6 only” option3=”2, 3, 4 and 5 only” option4=”1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6″ correct=”option1″]

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According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, raw materials like Cassava, Damaged wheat grains, Rotten potatoes, and Sugar beet can be used for the production of biofuels.
India’s National Policy on Biofuels (e.g., the 2018 policy) promotes the use of diverse feedstocks for biofuel production, particularly focusing on non-food based feedstocks (2nd generation) and utilizing damaged/surplus food grains and crops (1st generation under specific conditions). The policy explicitly lists “Sugarcane, Sugar Beet, Sweet Sorghum, Starch containing materials like Corn, Cassava, Damaged food grains like wheat, broken rice, Rotten Potatoes, etc.” as potential feedstocks for ethanol production. Damaged edible oilseeds and non-edible oilseeds are listed for biodiesel production.
From the given list:
1. Cassava: Starch-containing material, listed as a potential feedstock for ethanol.
2. Damaged wheat grains: Explicitly listed as an allowed feedstock for ethanol when unfit for human consumption.
3. Groundnut seeds: Edible oilseed. While damaged edible oilseeds can be used for biodiesel, groundnut is primarily a food crop, and the policy prioritizes non-edible sources or damaged edible sources. It’s less certain as a primary listed source compared to others for bulk biofuel production unless specifically damaged.
4. Horse gram: Pulse (edible). Not typically listed as a primary biofuel feedstock under the policy unless damaged or surplus, similar to other edible grains/pulses.
5. Rotten potatoes: Damaged food crop, explicitly listed as a potential feedstock for ethanol.
6. Sugar beet: Sugar crop, explicitly listed as a potential feedstock for ethanol.
The policy aims to encourage the production of biofuels from a wide range of feedstocks to improve energy security, reduce import bills, manage surplus agricultural produce, and reduce environmental pollution. The focus is increasingly on 2G biofuels from lignocellulosic biomass, but 1G from specified sources like damaged food grains and sugar/starch crops like sugar beet and cassava is also allowed.

93. What is/are the advantage/advantages of zero tillage in agriculture?

What is/are the advantage/advantages of zero tillage in agriculture?

  • Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of previous crop.
  • Without the need for nursery of rice saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the soil is possible.
  • Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option4″]

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All three statements describe advantages of zero tillage in agriculture.
Statement 1 is correct. Zero tillage allows direct sowing of seeds into the soil without plowing or tilling. This method can be used after harvesting the previous crop (e.g., rice) without needing to remove or burn the residue, as the seeds are sown directly through the stubble using specialized equipment. This helps in managing crop residue and prevents environmental pollution caused by burning.
Statement 2 is correct. Direct Seeding of Rice (DSR) is a technique where rice seeds are sown directly into the field, bypassing the need for raising seedlings in a nursery and then transplanting them. Zero tillage systems are compatible with DSR, allowing farmers to transition away from the traditional transplanting method which requires significant water and nursery preparation.
Statement 3 is correct. Zero tillage reduces soil disturbance. Less disturbance helps in retaining soil organic carbon. Over time, this can lead to an increase in the soil’s organic matter content and facilitate carbon sequestration, potentially helping to mitigate climate change.
Other advantages of zero tillage include reduced fuel consumption (less machinery use), lower labor costs, improved soil structure over the long term, better water infiltration, and reduced soil erosion.

94. If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildl

If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication?

[amp_mcq option1=”A licence is required to cultivate that plant.” option2=”Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any circumstances.” option3=”It is a Genetically Modified crop plant.” option4=”Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the ecosystem.” correct=”option1″]

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If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, it implies that a license is required to cultivate that plant.
Schedule VI of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 lists specific plant species. The cultivation, collection, extraction, and sale of these plants and their derivatives require a license from the Chief Wild Life Warden or an authorized officer. Without a license, such activities are prohibited.
The purpose of placing plants under Schedule VI is generally to protect certain rare, endangered, or commercially important plant species from unsustainable exploitation. Examples of plants listed under Schedule VI include Pitcher Plant, Blue Vanda, Red Vanda, Kuth, Lady’s Slipper Orchid, and plants of the genus Renanthera.

95. Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area und

Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?

[amp_mcq option1=”Corbett” option2=”Ranthambore” option3=”Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam” option4=”Sunderbans” correct=”option3″]

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Among the given options, Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve has the largest area designated as “Critical Tiger Habitat”.
Critical Tiger Habitat (CTH), also known as the core area of a tiger reserve, is defined under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended in 2006. It is an area of adequate size, duly notified by the state government, required to be kept inviolate for the purpose of tiger conservation. The total area and CTH area vary between tiger reserves. As of recent data (around the time this question was likely framed or based on common knowledge about large reserves), Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam consistently ranks as having one of the largest, if not the largest, CTH among major tiger reserves in India.
The approximate CTH areas for the given options are:
Corbett Tiger Reserve: ~821 sq km
Ranthambore Tiger Reserve: ~1113 sq km
Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve: ~2595 sq km
Sunderbans Tiger Reserve (Indian part): ~2125 sq km
Based on these figures, Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam has the largest Critical Tiger Habitat area.

96. Consider the following statements : 36% of India’s districts are cl

Consider the following statements :

  • 36% of India’s districts are classified as “overexploited” or “critical” by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
  • CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act.
  • India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”2 only” option4=”1 and 3 only” correct=”option2″]

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Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act, and India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation globally. Statement 1, regarding 36% of districts being classified as overexploited or critical, is likely an incorrect generalization or based on a misleading interpretation, as CGWA classifies assessment units (blocks, talukas, etc.) rather than entire districts in this manner.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Central Ground Water Authority assesses groundwater conditions at the level of ‘assessment units’ (blocks, talukas, mandals, watersheds), not typically whole districts. While a significant percentage of assessment units are classified as overexploited or critical (e.g., around 17% overexploited and 5% critical as per 2020 data), it’s inaccurate to state that 36% of *districts* are classified as such.
Statement 2 is correct. The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was constituted by the Government of India under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Statement 3 is correct. India is the world’s largest user of groundwater, primarily for agricultural irrigation. It has the largest area irrigated by groundwater sources globally.
CGWA is tasked with the regulation and control of groundwater development and management in the country. The excessive reliance on groundwater for irrigation and other uses has led to significant depletion of water tables in many parts of India. The assessment of groundwater resources and categorization into safe, semi-critical, critical, and over-exploited blocks is done periodically by the Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) and State Groundwater Departments.

97. With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following

With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct ?

  • It is spread over two districts.
  • There is no human habitation inside the Park.
  • It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard.

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option3″]

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The correct option is C, as statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.
The Desert National Park (DNP) is a large protected area in Rajasthan, India, known for its desert ecosystem and as a crucial habitat for endangered species like the Great Indian Bustard. It is spread across multiple districts and, typical of many large parks in India, includes human settlements within its boundaries.
1. **Spread over two districts:** The Desert National Park is indeed spread across two districts of Rajasthan: Jaisalmer and Barmer. This statement is correct.
2. **No human habitation inside the Park:** This statement is incorrect. Like many large national parks and wildlife sanctuaries in India, DNP has several villages and human settlements within its vast area. The park management works alongside local communities living inside and around the park.
3. **Habitat of Great Indian Bustard:** DNP is widely recognized as one of the primary and last remaining natural habitats for the critically endangered Great Indian Bustard (Ardeotis nigriceps). Conservation efforts for this species are heavily focused on DNP. This statement is correct.

98. What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture ? Controlling

What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture ?

  • Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible.
  • Efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all other phosphatic fertilizers is possible.
  • Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible.
  • Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 2 and 3 only” option2=”1, 2 and 4 only” option3=”1, 3 and 4 only” option4=”2, 3 and 4 only” correct=”option3″]

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The correct option is C, as statements 1, 3, and 4 describe advantages of fertigation, while statement 2 is incorrect regarding the efficient application of all phosphatic fertilizers, especially rock phosphate.
Fertigation is the integrated application of water-soluble fertilizers through an irrigation system. It delivers nutrients directly to the plant’s root zone along with water, offering potential benefits in nutrient use efficiency and management.
1. **Controlling alkalinity/pH:** Yes, certain fertilizers used in fertigation (like acidic fertilizers) can help modify the pH of the irrigation water and soil near the root zone, which can be beneficial in alkaline soils or with alkaline irrigation water.
2. **Efficient application of Phosphatic fertilizers:** While some soluble phosphatic fertilizers (e.g., monoammonium phosphate – MAP, diammonium phosphate – DAP after dissolution, urea phosphate) can be efficiently applied through fertigation, highly insoluble phosphatic fertilizers like rock phosphate are not suitable for fertigation systems as they can clog emitters and are not readily available to the plant in solution. Therefore, efficient application of *all* phosphatic fertilizers, particularly rock phosphate, is *not* possible via fertigation.
3. **Increased availability of nutrients:** Delivering nutrients directly to the active root zone in solution form enhances their availability and uptake by the plants compared to broadcasting or banding.
4. **Reduction in leaching:** Precise application of nutrients based on plant needs and growth stage, along with water management through irrigation, can reduce the amount of nutrients that leach below the root zone, minimizing environmental pollution and nutrient loss.

99. In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an impo

In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?

[amp_mcq option1=”The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998″ option2=”The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999″ option3=”The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011″ option4=”The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011″ correct=”option3″]

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The correct answer is C. ‘Extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in the e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011.
Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) is a policy approach under which producers are given a significant responsibility for the post-consumer stage of their products’ life cycle. In India, the concept of EPR was first formally introduced and elaborated in the e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011. These rules made producers responsible for the collection and channelization of e-waste generated from the ‘end-of-life’ of their products. Subsequent rules, like the Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016, also adopted the EPR principle for plastic waste.
The e-Waste (Management) Rules were further amended in 2016 and 2018, strengthening the provisions for EPR, including setting collection targets for producers. The concept aims to internalize the environmental costs associated with the disposal of goods into the product price, promoting environmentally sound waste management and encouraging product design changes that reduce environmental impact.

100. Consider the following statements: 1. As per law, the Compensatory A

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
  • 2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
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Statement 1: The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016, provides for the establishment of a Compensatory Afforestation Fund at both the national level (National Fund) and the state level (State Fund). It also mandates the constitution of a National Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) and State CAMPAs to manage these funds and carry out compensatory afforestation and other related activities. Thus, Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2: While the Act and related rules encourage people’s participation, especially involving Gram Sabhas in planning and monitoring compensatory afforestation activities (Section 4(2)(v) of the Act mentions inclusion of details relating to participation of local people, NGOs, etc., in the annual plan), it does not make people’s participation strictly mandatory for all compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Act. The term “mandatory” implies a strict legal requirement for every programme, which is not explicitly stipulated in the Act. Thus, Statement 2 is incorrect.
The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016 establishes CAMPA authorities and funds at both national and state levels, but people’s participation in programmes is encouraged rather than being strictly mandatory.
Compensatory afforestation is required under forest laws when forest land is diverted for non-forest purposes. The funds collected for this purpose were often underutilized or mismanaged, leading to the enactment of the 2016 Act to create a proper framework for the management and utilization of these funds. The Act aims to promote afforestation and regeneration activities to compensate for the loss of forest cover.
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