Economic and Social Development

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?

• 1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
• 2. Enterprises with crèches must allow the mother minimum six crèche visits daily.
• 3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option3″]

The correct answer is C, as only statement 3 is correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017 increased the period of paid maternity leave from 12 weeks to 26 weeks. This leave can be taken up to 8 weeks before the expected date of delivery and the remaining period after delivery. It is not three months pre and three months post-delivery.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act mandates that every establishment with fifty or more employees shall have the facility of a crèche. It also stipulates that the employer shall allow the mother minimum four visits a day to the crèche, which includes the interval for rest allowed to her. It is four visits, not six.
Statement 3 is correct. The Act specifies that a woman with two or more surviving children shall be entitled to a reduced maternity benefit of twelve weeks, of which not more than six weeks shall precede the date of her expected delivery. This means women with two children get reduced entitlements compared to those with one child.

The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017 also introduced the option for women who adopt a child below the age of three months or a commissioning mother (who uses a surrogate to bear a child) to take 12 weeks of maternity leave from the date the child is handed over to them. It also requires employers to inform women employees about their maternity benefits.

Consider the following statements:
As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018

• 1. if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers
• 2. no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in case of temporary workman

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option1″]

Statement 1 is correct.

Statement 1 is correct. The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018 (which led to insertion in model Standing Orders) introduced Fixed-Term Employment (FTE). A fixed-term workman is engaged for a fixed period. Upon expiry of the fixed term, the employment automatically terminates. This bypasses the requirement for following the formal retrenchment procedures under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 (like notice period or compensation based on service length) that would typically apply to permanent employees being laid off. Thus, for the employer, it is easier to end the employment at the conclusion of the term compared to laying off a permanent worker.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The rule introduced by the 2018 amendment regarding termination notice specifically states: “Provided that in case of a *fixed term workman*, no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary”. This rule applies to ‘fixed term workmen’, which is a specific category introduced by the amendment. The term ‘temporary workman’ under the Standing Orders might encompass different types of temporary arrangements, and the rules regarding notice for temporary workers can differ based on service duration and specific company Standing Orders (if certified). The statement uses the potentially broader term “temporary workman” while the amendment’s specific provision applies to the newly defined “fixed term workman”.

Fixed-Term Employment (FTE) was introduced to provide flexibility to employers to hire workers for specific projects or periods without the complexities of managing permanent staff when the project or period ends. FTE workers are entitled to the same wages, allowances, and other benefits as permanent workers doing the same work, but their employment ends automatically with the contract period.

Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the

[amp_mcq option1=”Department of Science and Technology” option2=”Ministry of Labour and Employment” option3=”NITI Aayog” option4=”Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship” correct=”option3″]

The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative established by the Government of India to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship. It is set up and managed under the National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog.

Atal Innovation Mission is an initiative of NITI Aayog.

AIM’s key initiatives include Atal Tinkering Labs (ATLs) in schools, Atal Incubation Centres (AICs), Atal Community Innovation Centres (ACICs), and the Atal New India Challenges/Applied Research and Innovation for Small Enterprises (ARISE). Its goal is to create an ecosystem of innovation across the country.

With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.” option2=”The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.” option3=”It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.” option4=”Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.” correct=”option2″]

Statement B is the correct statement regarding land reforms in independent India.

Statement A is incorrect. While later revisions in some states introduced or emphasized family holdings, the initial ceiling laws often targeted individual holdings.
Statement B is correct. A major aim of land reforms, particularly the imposition of ceiling limits on landholdings and redistribution of surplus land, was to provide agricultural land to the landless poor and marginal farmers, thereby reducing inequality and improving their economic status.
Statement C is incorrect. Land reforms aimed at structural changes in land ownership and tenancy. The shift towards cash crops is a complex phenomenon influenced by various factors like market demand, irrigation availability, technology, etc., and not a direct or primary outcome aimed for by land reforms.
Statement D is incorrect. Land ceiling laws included various exemptions, such as land held by plantations (tea, coffee, rubber, etc.), specialized farms (horticulture, dairy), and religious/charitable institutions. These exemptions were one of the reasons for the limited amount of surplus land available for redistribution.

Land reforms in India encompassed several aspects: abolition of intermediaries (like Zamindars), tenancy reforms (security of tenure, rent regulation, ownership rights for tenants), ceiling on landholdings, and consolidation of landholdings. The success of these reforms varied significantly across states.

With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements :
1. ‘The National Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
2. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority’ (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
3. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option2″]

Statement 1 is incorrect, while statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect because the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Commerce & Industry, not the Ministry of Rural Development.
Statement 2 is correct. The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA), under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry, functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of the NPOP.
Statement 3 is correct. Sikkim was declared India’s first fully organic State in 2016, based on its adoption of organic farming practices across its entire agricultural land.

NPOP provides a framework for organic certification in India, ensuring that products labelled as organic meet specific standards. It also facilitates the export of organic products from India. Other states are also working towards increasing organic farming coverage.

With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements :

• 1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
• 2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
• 3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 3 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option3″]

Statement 1 is incorrect. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), not the Ministry of Labour and Employment. Statement 2 is correct. PMKVY includes training components not only in domain-specific skills but also in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial literacy, and digital literacy to make trainees more employable. Statement 3 is correct. A key objective of PMKVY, particularly through its Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) component, is to assess and certify the skills of the existing, often unregulated, workforce and align their competencies with the National Skill Qualification Framework (NSQF).

PMKVY focuses on improving employability through skills training and certification, managed by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.

PMKVY was launched in 2015. The scheme aims to mobilize Indian youth to take up skill training with a view to increasing their employability and productivity.

Consider the following statements:
Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables

• individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
• increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country.
• accumulation of tangible wealth.
• accumulation of intangible wealth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2″ option2=”2 only” option3=”2 and 4″ option4=”1, 3 and 4″ correct=”option3″]

The correct answer is C.

Human capital formation refers to the process of increasing the stock of human capital within a population. Human capital consists of the knowledge, skills, competencies, and other attributes embodied in individuals that are relevant to economic activity.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Accumulating *more capital* generally refers to physical or financial capital, not human capital.
Statement 2 is correct: Increasing the knowledge, skill levels, and capacities of people directly describes the process of human capital formation (e.g., through education, training, healthcare).
Statement 3 is incorrect: Human capital is considered an *intangible* form of wealth, not tangible.
Statement 4 is correct: Human capital formation involves the accumulation of intangible wealth in the form of knowledge, skills, health, etc.
Therefore, statements 2 and 4 correctly explain human capital formation.

Human capital is considered a key driver of economic growth and development. Investments in human capital through education, health, and training are analogous to investments in physical capital; they enhance productivity and earning potential. The concept was significantly developed by economists like Gary Becker and Theodore Schultz.

Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India ?

• 1. Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did.
• 2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries.
• 3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”3 only” option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option3″]

Statement 3 is a core aim of the Digital India program, focusing on providing universal connectivity and internet access to villages, schools, and public places (e.g., BharatNet project). Statement 2 aligns with policy discussions under Digital India’s vision for digital infrastructure and the digital economy, aiming to encourage data infrastructure development within national boundaries. Statement 1, aiming to form India’s own internet companies like China, is not a stated primary or explicit goal of the Digital India program itself, though promoting domestic innovation is part of broader economic policy. Therefore, 2 and 3 are the most accurate reflections of the program’s aims among the options.

The Digital India program has three key vision areas: Digital Infrastructure as a Core Utility to Every Citizen, Governance & Services on Demand, and Digital Empowerment of Citizens. Providing broadband connectivity to villages, public Wi-Fi, promoting e-governance, digital literacy, and building indigenous digital infrastructure are key components.

The focus on data localization and encouraging data centers within India aligns with the goal of developing robust digital infrastructure and ensuring data security and sovereignty, which falls under the broad objectives of Digital India. The program is more about enabling a digital ecosystem than specifically creating government-backed corporate giants.

With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:

• BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.
• While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option1″]

The correct answer is A) 1 only.

– Statement 1 is correct. The BHIM (Bharat Interface for Money) app is based on the Unified Payments Interface (UPI). UPI allows users to link their bank accounts and make instant money transfers using a Virtual Payment Address (VPA), mobile number, account number and IFSC, or Aadhaar. Therefore, a user can transfer money to anyone who has a bank account enabled for UPI.
– Statement 2 is incorrect. Let’s analyze the factors of authentication:
– A standard chip-PIN debit card transaction at a POS machine typically involves two factors: something you have (the card) and something you know (the PIN). Online transactions often add a third factor like an OTP (something you receive). The statement claims *four* factors for a chip-PIN card, which is generally not accurate.
– The BHIM app requires unlocking the phone (often using biometrics or PIN – ‘something you are’ or ‘something you know’), logging into the app (requiring an application PIN – ‘something you know’), and then authorizing a transaction using the UPI PIN (‘something you know’). This involves multiple layers of security, effectively utilizing at least three distinct pieces of information or actions for a transaction, not just two.

BHIM was launched by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) to facilitate fast, secure, and reliable cashless payments through mobile phones. UPI has become one of the most popular digital payment methods in India.

With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements :

• The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains.
• The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
• Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘take-home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2″ option2=”2 only” option3=”1 and 3″ option4=”3 only” correct=”option2″]

The correct answer is B) 2 only.

– Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013 entitles up to 75% of the rural population and up to 50% of the urban population to receive subsidised food grains under the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS). These beneficiaries are classified as ‘priority households’ and also include households covered under the Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY). Eligibility is determined by states/UTs based on criteria defined within the framework of the Act, and it is not limited *only* to the traditional ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ category.
– Statement 2 is correct. Section 13 of the NFSA, 2013, explicitly states that for the purpose of issuance of a ration card under the Act, the eldest woman in a household, of age eighteen years or above, shall be the head of the household.
– Statement 3 is incorrect. Section 4 of the NFSA, 2013, entitles pregnant women and lactating mothers to nutritious meals, free of cost, during pregnancy and six months after childbirth, through the local anganwadis. It also guarantees a maternity benefit of not less than `6000. However, the Act itself does not specify a “take-home ration of 1600 calories per day” as the entitlement. While supplementary nutrition programs like ICDS (often linked with NFSA implementation) may have guidelines that result in a certain caloric intake delivered through take-home rations or meals, the specific entitlement defined *in the Act* is meals and maternity benefit, not a fixed caloric take-home ration value.

The NFSA aims to provide food and nutritional security by ensuring access to adequate quantities of quality food at affordable prices. It marked a shift from a welfare-based approach to a rights-based approach to food security.