Economic and Social Development Archives

41. The provisions in relation to the illegal strikes and lock-outs are gi

The provisions in relation to the illegal strikes and lock-outs are given under :

Section 22 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.

Section 23 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.

Section 24 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.

Section 29 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022

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The provisions in relation to illegal strikes and lock-outs are primarily given under Section 24 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.

Section 24 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 defines what constitutes an illegal strike and an illegal lock-out. It refers back to Sections 22 and 23, stating that a strike or lock-out is illegal if it is commenced or continued in contravention of the provisions of Section 22 or Section 23, or if it is commenced or continued in contravention of an order prohibiting the strike or lock-out under Section 10(3) or Section 10A(4).

Section 22 deals with the prohibition of strikes and lock-outs in public utility services, requiring specific notice periods. Section 23 imposes a general prohibition on strikes and lock-outs in all industrial establishments during the pendency of conciliation, arbitration, or tribunal proceedings, or during a settlement/award in force. Section 29 deals with penalties for breaches of settlements or awards, not the definition or provisions related to illegal strikes/lock-outs themselves.

43. What is the term of the Presiding Officer of Employees’ Provident Fund

What is the term of the Presiding Officer of Employees’ Provident Funds Appellate Tribunal ?

Five years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier

Five years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier

Three years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier

Three years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022

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The correct answer is (A) Five years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier.

As per Section 7D of the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, the Presiding Officer of the Employees’ Provident Funds Appellate Tribunal holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of sixty-two years, whichever is earlier.

This prescribed term and age limit are specific to the Presiding Officer of this particular tribunal and ensure a balance between tenure and age-related fitness for the role. The conditions for reappointment, if any, would also be governed by the relevant provisions of the Act.

45. Consider the following statements with respect to Polavaram Project of

Consider the following statements with respect to Polavaram Project often mentioned in the news :

1. It is being constructed on river Godavari.
2. It is meant to supply irrigation water to parts of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Chhattisgarh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022

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Statement 1 is correct. The Polavaram Project is a multi-purpose irrigation project being constructed on the Godavari River in Andhra Pradesh.
Statement 2 is incorrect. While the project has implications and attracts concerns from neighboring states like Telangana, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha regarding submergence and water allocation, its primary purpose is to provide irrigation water to parts of Andhra Pradesh, along with provisions for drinking water, power generation, and industrial use within Andhra Pradesh. It is not directly meant to supply irrigation water to parts of Telangana and Chhattisgarh as a primary objective; these states have their own water usage and projects from the Godavari basin, and the Polavaram project’s impact on them relates more to water availability and submergence issues.

– Polavaram is a major irrigation project on the Godavari River.
– The project’s command area for irrigation is primarily in Andhra Pradesh.
– Inter-state disputes exist, but the project’s main beneficiary for irrigation is Andhra Pradesh.

The Polavaram Project is designated as a National Project by the Government of India. It aims to transfer Godavari water to the Krishna River basin and provide irrigation to large areas in coastal Andhra Pradesh.

46. The Central Government may frame a scheme to be called the Employees’

The Central Government may frame a scheme to be called the Employees’ Pension Scheme under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 for the purpose of providing

1. Superannuation pension.
2. Retiring pension.
3. Partial disablement pension.
4. Permanent total disablement pension.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1, 2 and 3

2 and 4 only

3 and 4 only

1, 2 and 4

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2021

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The correct answer is D) 1, 2 and 4.

– The Employees’ Pension Scheme (EPS), 1995, framed under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, provides various types of pension benefits to eligible members and their families.
– The scheme provides for:
– **Superannuation pension:** Payable on attaining the age of 58 years with at least 10 years of contributing service (Option 1).
– **Retiring pension:** Payable on taking reduced pension from age 50 to 57 with at least 10 years of contributing service (Often referred to as early pension or reduced pension, aligning with the concept of retiring before superannuation age) (Option 2).
– **Permanent Total Disablement Pension:** Payable if a member is permanently and totally disabled during employment (Option 4).
– The scheme also provides for Disablement Pension which can be assessed for Permanent Partial Disablement, leading to a proportionate pension (relevant to Option 3). However, ‘Permanent Total Disablement Pension’ (Option 4) is a specific, named benefit category. While partial disablement leads to pension, ‘Permanent Total Disablement’ is a distinct major category.
– Comparing options and known benefits, Options 1 (Superannuation), 2 (Retiring/Early), and 4 (Permanent Total Disablement) are all fundamental types of pensions provided under the scheme. While partial disablement pension (Option 3) is also provided, options A and D present specific combinations. Option D including Superannuation, Retiring, and Permanent Total Disablement aligns well with key, distinct benefit categories often highlighted.

Other types of pensions provided under the EPS 1995 include Widow Pension, Children Pension, Orphan Pension, and Nominee Pension, providing social security to the family members upon the death of the member. The pension amount is calculated based on factors like pensionable salary and pensionable service.

47. Which of the following statements about the term ‘Ek Bharat Shreshtha

Which of the following statements about the term ‘Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat’ is/are correct ?

1. It is an idea of sustained cultural connect between denizens of different regions.
2. This was mooted in commemoration of the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
3. It fosters common spirit of understanding among different States and UTs.

Select the correct answer using the code below :

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2021

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The ‘Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat’ programme aims to enhance interaction and promote mutual understanding between people of different states/UTs in India.
1. It facilitates sustained cultural connect between regions through pairing one state with another for exchange activities. This supports statement 1.
2. The programme was announced by the Prime Minister of India, Shri Narendra Modi, on October 31, 2015, on the occasion of the 140th birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, who was instrumental in the integration of India. This supports statement 2.
3. By promoting exchange activities in areas like language, literature, cuisine, festivals, cultural events, tourism, etc., the programme fosters a common spirit of understanding and bonding between states and UTs. This supports statement 3.
All three statements correctly describe the objectives and origin of the ‘Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat’ programme.

The programme embodies the spirit of ‘Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat’ (One India, Great India) and aims to celebrate the unity in diversity of India.

Under the programme, states and Union Territories are paired with each other for a year during which they carry out structured engagement with each other in various fields like culture, education, tourism, etc.

48. Giving access to consumption of sugar as a source of energy in diet, f

Giving access to consumption of sugar as a source of energy in diet, for the poorest of the poor sections of the society, has been initiated under

Antyodaya Anna Yojana.

Annapurna Scheme.

Targeted Public Distribution System.

Mid-day Meal Scheme.

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2021

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The correct answer is A) Antyodaya Anna Yojana.

Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) is a scheme launched by the Government of India under the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) aimed at providing highly subsidised foodgrains to the poorest among the Below Poverty Line (BPL) families. While the central government provides foodgrains, many state governments also distribute additional essential commodities like sugar, pulses, edible oil, etc., at subsidised prices through the TPDS outlets to AAY beneficiaries. Access to sugar for the poorest sections is most directly linked to the provisions often made for beneficiaries under the AAY component of TPDS.

The Annapurna Scheme provides 10 kg of free foodgrains per month to indigent senior citizens who are not receiving pension under the National Old Age Pension Scheme. The Mid-day Meal Scheme provides cooked meals to school children. While the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) is the overall framework, AAY specifically targets the ‘poorest of the poor’ families within the TPDS beneficiaries, making it the most relevant scheme for providing access to commodities like sugar for this specific demographic.

49. Which of the following is/are core infrastructure element(s) of Smart

Which of the following is/are core infrastructure element(s) of Smart Cities Mission?
1. To ensure adequate water supply
2. To ensure adequate electricity supply
3. To ensure efficient urban mobility and transport
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2021

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The correct answer is D) 1, 2 and 3.

The Smart Cities Mission identifies several core infrastructure elements that cities need to provide. These include: 1. Adequate water supply, 2. Assured electricity supply, 3. Sanitation (including solid waste management), 4. Urban mobility and public transport, 5. Affordable housing (especially for the poor), 6. Robust IT connectivity and digitalization, 7. Safety and security of citizens, 8. Health and education, 9. Sustainable environment, and 10. Area-based development. All three points listed in the question (Adequate water supply, Adequate electricity supply, Efficient urban mobility and transport) are explicitly mentioned as core infrastructure elements of the mission.

The Smart Cities Mission is an urban renewal and retrofitting program by the Government of India with the objective to develop city-solutions that make cities sustainable, inclusive, and improve the quality of life of its citizens. The mission adopts an area-based approach combining retrofitting, redevelopment, and greenfield development.