Economic and Social Development Archives

21. The ‘Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana’ was launched to support

The ‘Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana’ was launched to support

infrastructure development in rural areas

poverty eradication programmes

education for underprivileged children

economic empowerment of the poor during the COVID-19 pandemic

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20

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The Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana (PMGKY) refers to a comprehensive package announced by the Government of India in response to the economic disruptions caused by the COVID-19 pandemic.

The core objective of PMGKY was to provide welfare measures and economic relief to the poor and vulnerable sections of society during the COVID-19 crisis. This included measures like food grain distribution, cash transfers to women, farmers, and construction workers, and insurance cover for healthcare workers.

Initially announced in March 2020, the scheme included providing free food grains and pulses for 80 crore poor people, cash transfers under schemes like PM-KISAN, Jan Dhan accounts for women, and measures for senior citizens and widows. It was later extended and modified based on the duration and impact of the pandemic, specifically focusing on supporting the economic well-being of the poor during this unprecedented period.

22. The ‘National Rural Livelihood Mission’ is aimed at

The ‘National Rural Livelihood Mission’ is aimed at

promoting rural tourism

providing free healthcare to rural families

poverty reduction through self-employment and skill development

encouraging organic farming practices

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20

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The National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM), now known as Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM), is a flagship program of the Government of India aimed at poverty reduction in rural areas.

The primary strategy of NRLM is to reduce poverty by building strong institutions of the poor, particularly women, and enabling these institutions to access a range of financial and livelihood services. This is achieved through promoting self-employment and providing opportunities for skill development among the rural poor.

NRLM focuses on creating sustainable livelihood options for the rural poor. It works through mobilizing poor households into Self Help Groups (SHGs) and their federations, providing financial assistance (revolving fund, community investment support fund), and facilitating access to bank credit and other financial services. It also supports capacity building and skill development for diversified livelihoods.

23. Consider the following statements: The ‘Atal Pension Yojana’ focuses o

Consider the following statements:
The ‘Atal Pension Yojana’ focuses on providing pension benefits to

1. farmers
2. Government employees
3. industrial workers
4. unorganized sector workers

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

4 only

1, 3 and 4

1 and 4 only

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20

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The Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is a government-backed pension scheme primarily aimed at encouraging saving for retirement among workers in the *unorganized sector*. It provides a guaranteed minimum monthly pension ranging from ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 based on contributions and age of joining. While individuals from other categories (like farmers or industrial workers) who are part of the unorganized sector can join, the scheme’s specific target group is defined as the unorganized sector. Therefore, statement 4 is the most accurate description of the target beneficiaries.

– APY is designed for individuals in the unorganized sector.
– It offers a guaranteed pension amount after retirement (age 60).
– Government provides co-contribution for eligible subscribers.

The scheme was launched in 2015 and replaced the Swavalamban Yojana. Subscribers must be Indian citizens between 18 and 40 years of age and must not be income tax payers.

24. Match the following Lists: List-I List-II P. Swamitva Yoj

Match the following Lists:

List-I	List-II
P. Swamitva Yojana	1. Improving Centre-State linkages, partnership and accelerating MSME performance
Q. RAMP Scheme	2. ‘Records of Rights’ to village household owners with issuance of legal ownership
R. Samarth Yojana	3. To provide psychological support to school, college and university students for their mental health and well-being during the COVID outbreak and beyond
S. Manodarpan Scheme	4. To provide 5 lakhs certified and trained tyre mechanics by 2022

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

P 2 Q 1 R 4 S 3

P 2 Q 1 R 3 S 4

P 3 Q 4 R 2 S 1

P 3 Q 4 R 1 S 2

This question was previously asked in

UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2019-20

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The correct match is P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3.

– P. Swamitva Yojana: ‘Records of Rights’ to village household owners with issuance of legal ownership documents. This matches description 2.
– Q. RAMP Scheme: Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance (RAMP) is a World Bank-assisted Central Sector Scheme focusing on improving Centre-State linkages, partnership, and accelerating MSME performance. This matches description 1.
– S. Manodarpan Scheme: Launched by the Ministry of Human Resource Development (now Ministry of Education) as part of the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan, it provides psychological support to students, teachers, and families for mental health and well-being. This matches description 3.
– R. Samarth Yojana: Scheme for Capacity Building in Textile Sector. Description 4 (“To provide 5 lakhs certified and trained tyre mechanics by 2022”) does not align with Samarth Yojana, which focuses on the textile industry. However, based on the correct matching of P, Q, and S in Option A, this option is the intended answer, suggesting a potential error in the description provided for R or the question itself.

Swamitva Scheme aims to provide an integrated property validation solution for rural India. RAMP aims to enhance the quality and delivery of MSME programmes. Manodarpan is crucial for addressing mental health challenges in the education sector, especially in the context of the COVID-19 pandemic and beyond. Samarth Scheme aims to train approximately 10 lakh people, excluding spinning and weaving, in the organized and unorganized sectors of the textile industry.

28. During the pendency of any proceeding before a Board of Conciliation,

During the pendency of any proceeding before a Board of Conciliation, Labour Court, Tribunal or National Tribunal, which of the following actions cannot be taken by an employer under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?

1. Altering in regard to any matter not connected with the dispute, the service conditions applicable to a workman immediately before commencement of such proceedings
2. Discharging or punishing a workman for a misconduct that is not connected with the pending dispute
3. Discharging or punishing a protected workman after instituting a Disciplinary Committee against him

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

2 only

3 only

1 and 2

1 and 3

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2024

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The correct answer is B, meaning only statement 3 describes an action that cannot be taken by an employer during the pendency of proceedings without following a specific procedure under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.

Section 33 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 imposes restrictions on an employer’s ability to alter service conditions or discharge/punish workmen during the pendency of conciliation, arbitration, or adjudication proceedings.
– Section 33(1): Requires express permission from the authority for actions concerning any matter connected with the dispute, including alteration of service conditions or discharge/punishment.
– Section 33(2): Allows alterations in service conditions regarding any matter *not* connected with the dispute, or discharge/punishment for misconduct *not* connected with the dispute. However, these actions are subject to conditions: the workman must be paid one month’s wages, and an application for approval of the action must be made simultaneously to the authority. This implies such actions *can* be taken without *prior* permission, but require subsequent approval.
– Section 33(3): Provides special protection for ‘protected workmen’ (trade union office bearers). Any action against them, including discharge or punishment, whether or not connected with the dispute, requires *express prior permission* from the authority.

Statement 1 describes altering service conditions not connected with the dispute. This is permissible under Section 33(2), subject to conditions, meaning it *can* be taken.
Statement 2 describes discharging or punishing a workman for misconduct not connected with the dispute. This is permissible under Section 33(2), subject to conditions, meaning it *can* be taken.
Statement 3 describes discharging or punishing a ‘protected workman’. Under Section 33(3), this action *cannot* be taken without express prior permission from the authority. This is a more stringent restriction than under 33(2). Therefore, among the given options, this action is the one that “cannot be taken” unilaterally or without the required prior approval process.

The purpose of Section 33 is to maintain the status quo during proceedings to prevent victimisation of workmen and ensure smooth settlement of industrial disputes. The provisions of Section 33(2) are often referred to as involving ‘controlled’ alterations or actions, while Section 33(3) for protected workmen requires strict ‘prior permission’.

29. Which one of the following statements in the context of the Employees’

Which one of the following statements in the context of the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923 is correct?

The lump-sum or half-monthly payment payable under the Act may be assigned or charged or liable to pass on to any person other than the employee.

A notice of compensation may be entertained by the Commissioner, even if the notice of the accident was not provided when the accident occurred.

Any right to receive half-monthly payment can under no circumstances be redeemed by payment of a lump-sum of such amount.

The half-monthly payment payable under the Act may be reviewed by the Commissioner in case there is a change in the condition of the employee.

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2024

Download PDF Attempt Online

Let’s examine each statement in the context of the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923:
– Statement A: Section 8(1) prohibits the assignment or charge of lump sums or half-monthly payments, or their passing to any person other than the employee or his dependents. So, the statement that it *may* be assigned or charged is incorrect.
– Statement B: Section 10 requires notice of the accident as soon as practicable and a claim within two years. However, the proviso to Section 10(1) allows the Commissioner to entertain a claim even if notice was not given in due time if the employer had knowledge of the accident or if failure was due to sufficient cause. Thus, it *may* be entertained. This statement is correct.
– Statement C: Section 7 allows for the redemption of half-monthly payments by a lump sum under certain circumstances determined by the Commissioner. Therefore, it *can* under certain circumstances be redeemed, contrary to the statement. This is incorrect.
– Statement D: Section 7 explicitly provides for the review of half-monthly payments by the Commissioner on the application of either the employer or employee, accompanied by a medical certificate indicating a change in the condition of the employee. This directly matches the statement. This is correct.

Both B and D are factually correct based on the provisions. However, typically in UPSC MCQs asking for ‘which one is correct’, only one option is intended as the best fit or most direct statement from the Act. Statement D describes a routine process (review of half-monthly payment based on changed condition) directly enabled by Section 7. Statement B describes an exception to a procedural requirement (timely notice) allowed under a proviso to Section 10, which is conditional on the Commissioner’s discretion based on specific facts (employer knowledge or sufficient cause). Statement D is a more general statement of a power available under the Act whenever the condition (change in employee’s state) is met, whereas B relies on specific circumstances to override a default rule. Therefore, D is the most likely intended correct answer as a direct statement of a power/procedure under the Act.

The question tests various aspects of the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923, including assignment of compensation, notice requirements, redemption of payments, and review of payments.

Section 8 deals with the distribution of compensation. Section 9 prohibits contracting out and assignment of compensation. Section 10 deals with notice and claim. Section 7 deals with the review of half-monthly payments.

30. Consider the following statements in respect of granting exemption fro

Consider the following statements in respect of granting exemption from the operation of the provisions of the Employees’ Provident Funds Scheme under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 :

1. In case the appropriate government is of the opinion that the rules of provident fund as to the rate of contributions of an establishment are not less favourable than those specified in the Act, exemption may be granted.
2. In case the employees in an establishment are in enjoyment of benefits in nature of provident fund, pension or gratuity, which are not less favourable to the employees than the benefits provided under the Act, exemption may be granted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

2 only

3 only

1 and 2

1 and 3

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2024

Download PDF Attempt Online

Section 17 of the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 provides for the power to grant exemption.
– Statement 1: Section 17(1)(a) allows the appropriate government to grant exemption if the rules of provident fund of the establishment are, in its opinion, not less favourable to the employees than those specified in the Act or Scheme. This matches statement 1.
– Statement 2: Section 17(1)(b) allows the appropriate government to grant exemption if the employees are in enjoyment of benefits in the nature of provident fund, pension, or gratuity which are, on the whole, not less favourable to the employees than the benefits provided under the Act or Scheme, without reducing their emoluments or other benefits. This matches statement 2.
Both statements describe valid grounds for granting exemption under the Act.

The question tests the conditions under which an establishment can be exempted from the provisions of the Employees’ Provident Funds Scheme as per the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.

Exemptions are generally granted to establishments that have their own private provident fund trusts or schemes that offer equivalent or superior benefits compared to the statutory scheme, provided certain conditions are met and the trust is managed according to prescribed rules and regulations.