Economic and Social Development

91. As per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultura

As per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households”, consider the following statements:

  • Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.
  • Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent belong to OBCs.
  • In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”2 and 3 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2018
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According to the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households” (2013), Statement 1 is correct: Rajasthan had the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households (78.4%).
Statement 2 is incorrect: Out of the total agricultural households in the country, OBCs constituted 44.8%, not over 60%.
Statement 3 is correct: In Kerala, for 61.2% of agricultural households, the major source of income was from ‘wage/salary earnings’ (which falls under non-agricultural activities), indicating that a little over 60% received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.
– NSSO 70th Round survey provides data on the socio-economic conditions of agricultural households.
– Rajasthan had the highest proportion of agricultural households in rural areas.
– OBCs are a significant but not majority (over 60%) group among agricultural households nationally.
– Kerala’s agricultural households show high dependence on non-agricultural income sources.
Agricultural household is defined in the survey as a household having at least one member self-employed in agriculture either in principal or subsidiary status and having a total value of produce of at least Rs 3000 during the last 365 days.

92. Consider the following statements : The nation-wide ‘Soil Health Card

Consider the following statements :
The nation-wide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at

  • 1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.
  • 2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.
  • 3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”3 only” option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option2″]

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UPSC IAS – 2017
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The correct answer is B) 3 only. The primary aim of the Soil Health Card Scheme is to provide farmers with soil nutrient status and recommendations, directly helping to check the overuse of fertilizers. Statements 1 and 2 are not the stated aims of the scheme.
– Statement 1 is incorrect. The scheme focuses on existing cultivable land to improve soil health and productivity, not on expanding irrigated area. Irrigation infrastructure development is a separate initiative.
– Statement 2 is incorrect. While improved soil health can potentially benefit a farmer’s creditworthiness, enabling banks to assess loan quantum based on soil quality is not a stated objective or direct function of the scheme. The scheme aims to empower farmers with information for better farming decisions.
– Statement 3 is correct. A core objective is to promote balanced fertilization based on soil test reports and recommended doses of nutrients, thereby preventing the indiscriminate and overuse of fertilizers, which saves costs and reduces environmental pollution.
The Soil Health Card Scheme, launched by the Government of India, involves testing soil samples from farmers’ fields and providing them with a card detailing the soil’s nutrient status and recommendations for appropriate fertilizers and soil amendments. The aim is to improve soil health, increase productivity, and optimize fertilizer use, promoting sustainable agriculture.

93. With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations program

With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct ?

  • UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all.
  • Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only.
  • UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 2 and 3″ option2=”1 and 3 only” option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”1 only” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2017
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Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.
– Statement 1 is correct. UN-Habitat is indeed mandated by the United Nations General Assembly with the mission to promote socially and environmentally sustainable human settlements development and the achievement of adequate shelter for all.
– Statement 2 is incorrect. UN-Habitat works with a wide range of partners, not limited to only governments and local urban authorities. Its partners include national governments, local authorities, civil society organizations, the private sector, academic institutions, and other UN agencies.
– Statement 3 is correct. UN-Habitat’s work on improving urban living conditions, providing access to basic services like water and sanitation, and promoting sustainable development directly contributes to the broader UN goals of poverty reduction and improving living standards.
UN-Habitat was established in 1978 as the United Nations Centre for Human Settlements and upgraded to a Programme (UN-Habitat) in 2002. Its headquarters are in Nairobi, Kenya. It is the focal point for urbanization and human settlement issues within the UN system.

94. With reference to ‘Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and

With reference to ‘Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)’, consider the following statements:

  • The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme ‘Emerging Urban Forms – Policy Responses and Governance Structure’.
  • India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2017
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The correct answer is A) 1 only.
The first Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD) was indeed held in New Delhi, India, in 2006, and its theme was ‘Emerging Urban Forms – Policy Responses and Governance Structure’. Thus, statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because India does not host *all* annual APMCHUD conferences; the hosting rotates among member countries. Furthermore, the conference is typically held biennially (every two years) or at similar intervals, not annually.
APMCHUD is a forum for ministers from countries in the Asia-Pacific region to discuss issues related to housing and urban development, promote regional cooperation, and share best practices. Subsequent conferences have been hosted by various other countries in the region.

95. Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS) ?

Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS) ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Resident Indian citizens only” option2=”Persons of age from 21 to 55 only” option3=”All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments” option4=”All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2017
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The National Pension System (NPS) is available to a wide range of subscribers.
Option A is incorrect as Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) can also open NPS accounts.
Option B is incorrect as the current age limit for joining NPS is between 18 and 70 years.
Option C is correct. NPS was initially made mandatory for new central government employees (except Armed Forces) joining on or after 1st April, 2004. Subsequently, most State Governments adopted NPS for their employees, making it mandatory for those joining service after a specific date notified by the respective State Government. This option accurately describes a major category of individuals for whom NPS is mandatory and who can join.
Option D is incorrect as employees of the Armed Forces are specifically excluded from the mandatory NPS applicable to other Central Government employees joining on or after 1st April, 2004. They are covered by separate pension schemes.
– NPS is open to Indian citizens (resident and NRI) aged 18-70.
– It is mandatory for most central government employees (except Armed Forces) joining after 01.04.2004.
– Most State Governments have adopted NPS for their employees joining after a specified date.
Apart from government employees, NPS is also open to self-employed professionals and other individuals. Subscribers contribute to their individual pension accounts (Tier I) which are managed by professional fund managers regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA). A voluntary Tier II account is also available.

96. Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Missi

Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’ ?

  • 1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers.
  • 2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.
  • 3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice.
  • 4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”1, 2 and 3 only” option3=”1, 2 and 4 only” option4=”3 and 4 only” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2017
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Statement 1 is correct. Creating awareness related to malnutrition, especially among vulnerable groups like pregnant women and lactating mothers, is a key component of the National Nutrition Mission (POSHAN Abhiyaan) under its Behavioural Change Communication (BCC) and Jan Andolan (Mass Movement) pillars.
Statement 2 is correct. Reducing the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls, and women is one of the explicit and primary targets/objectives of the National Nutrition Mission.
Statement 3 is correct. While not always listed as a standalone *outcome* objective, promoting consumption of nutritious foods, including traditional and coarse grains like millets and unpolished rice, is a significant part of the dietary diversity promotion strategy under the mission’s BCC activities aimed at improving nutritional intake and combating malnutrition. Given the policy focus on millets etc., this is likely considered an objective under dietary behaviour change.
Statement 4 is incorrect. While eggs are nutritious and might be included in dietary recommendations, promoting the consumption of ‘poultry eggs’ specifically is too narrow and not typically listed as a core objective of the National Nutrition Mission itself, compared to the broader goals like reducing anaemia or promoting diverse diets including specific food *groups* or traditional grains.
– The National Nutrition Mission aims to reduce stunting, undernutrition, anaemia, and low birth weight.
– Key strategies include awareness generation (BCC), convergence of schemes, and technology adoption.
– Promoting dietary diversity and consumption of nutritious foods is a component of BCC.
The National Nutrition Mission, or POSHAN Abhiyaan, was launched in 2018 to improve nutritional outcomes for children, pregnant women, and lactating mothers. It utilizes a convergent approach, technology, and community participation (Jan Andolan) to achieve its targets.

97. Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the

Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world ?

[amp_mcq option1=”World Economic Forum” option2=”UN Human Rights Council” option3=”UN Women” option4=”World Health Organization” correct=”option1″]

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UPSC IAS – 2017
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The correct option is A) World Economic Forum.
– The Global Gender Gap Index is an index designed to measure gender equality. It is published annually by the World Economic Forum (WEF).
– The index measures disparities between men and women across four key areas: economic participation and opportunity, educational attainment, health and survival, and political empowerment.
– The other options are incorrect. While UN bodies like UN Women and UN Human Rights Council work on gender equality issues, they do not publish the Global Gender Gap Index. The World Health Organization focuses on health matters.
The Global Gender Gap Report, published by the WEF, provides country rankings based on the index, aiming to track progress towards closing gender gaps over time. It is a widely cited source for assessing the state of gender equality globally.

98. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

[amp_mcq option1=”Privileges” option2=”Restraints” option3=”Competition” option4=”Ideology” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2017
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The correct option is A) Privileges.
– Equality in society implies that individuals are treated without discrimination based on arbitrary factors like birth, status, race, gender, etc.
– Privileges are special rights, advantages, or immunities granted to a particular person or group that are not available to others. The existence of such unequal privileges contradicts the principle of equality.
– Therefore, a direct implication of equality is the absence of arbitrary or unequal privileges that place some individuals or groups at an unfair advantage over others.
Equality does not necessarily mean uniformity or absence of all distinctions or rules (restraints). It often refers to equal opportunity, equal treatment under the law, or equality of outcome in certain contexts. Competition can exist within an equal framework (e.g., fair competition with equal rules). Ideology is a system of ideas, and equality itself can be part of an ideology; its presence doesn’t imply the absence of all ideologies. The core concept that is absent when equality prevails is unequal privilege.

99. ‘Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the n

‘Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to

[amp_mcq option1=”Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels.” option2=”Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes.” option3=”Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings.” option4=”Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme.” correct=”option4″]

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The correct option is D) Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme.
– Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) is a key component of the National Skill Development Programme (NSDP) and its flagship scheme, Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY).
– The purpose of RPL is to assess and certify the skills and knowledge gained through informal learning or work experience. This helps align the competencies of the un-regulated workforce to the National Skill Qualification Framework (NSQF).
– Option A is a specific example of where RPL is applied (certifying skills of construction workers who learned through traditional channels). However, RPL is applicable across various sectors and modes of informal/prior learning.
– Option D describes the general context of RPL as part of the overarching National Skill Development Programme for certifying skills acquired. This is the more direct and comprehensive description of what RPL is mentioned in the news with reference to, as it falls under the ambit of NSDP initiatives.
RPL aims to provide formal recognition to existing skills, thereby improving the employability of the workforce, enabling them to command better wages, and facilitating their entry into formal employment or further education. It is a crucial step towards formalizing the informal economy and upskilling/reskilling the workforce.

100. Consider the following statements : 1. The Sustainable Development G

Consider the following statements :

  • 1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the ‘Club of Rome’.
  • 2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option2″]

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Statement 2 is correct. The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are indeed set to be achieved by the year 2030.
The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, adopted by all United Nations Member States in 2015, provides a shared blueprint for peace and prosperity for people and the planet, now and into the future. At its heart are the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), which are an urgent call for action by all countries in a global partnership.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sustainable Development Goals were not first proposed by the ‘Club of Rome’ in 1972. The Club of Rome published ‘Limits to Growth’ in 1972, which highlighted environmental challenges, but it is distinct from the framework of SDGs. The SDGs were formulated through a UN-led process that built upon the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs, 2000-2015) and emerged from discussions following the Rio+20 Conference on Sustainable Development in 2012.
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