Defence Technology Archives

31. ‘Predator Drones’ are manufactured by :

‘Predator Drones’ are manufactured by :

[amp_mcq option1=”General Atomics” option2=”The Boeing Company” option3=”Lockheed Martin Corporation” option4=”PrecisionHawk” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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The ‘Predator Drones’, specifically the MQ-1 Predator unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV), were manufactured by General Atomics Aeronautical Systems (GA-ASI).

General Atomics is a major American energy and defense corporation known for its contributions to nuclear physics, drone technology, and other advanced systems.

The MQ-1 Predator has been replaced by its successor, the MQ-9 Reaper, which is also manufactured by General Atomics. The Predator was primarily used by the United States Air Force and CIA for reconnaissance and strike missions.

32. Which one of the following areas of the Airport does not fall under Ai

Which one of the following areas of the Airport does not fall under Airside as far as security of Airport is concerned ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Tarmac” option2=”Visitors car parking area” option3=”Terminal building” option4=”Runway” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022

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The Visitors car parking area does not fall under Airside as far as the security of the Airport is concerned.

Airside areas of an airport are the parts where aircraft operate or are serviced, including runways, taxiways, aprons (tarmac), and secure areas within the terminal building (beyond security checks). Access to these areas is strictly controlled. Landside areas are those accessible to the general public before security checks, such as access roads, public parts of the terminal building (check-in areas), and parking facilities. The visitors car parking area is located landside.

The Terminal building contains both landside (public) and airside (secure/sterile) areas. Tarmac (Apron) and Runway are unequivocally airside areas. The visitors car parking area is entirely landside.

33. Which one of the following is the full form of X-BIS ?

Which one of the following is the full form of X-BIS ?

[amp_mcq option1=”X-ray Baggage Inspection System” option2=”X-ray Baggage Imaging System” option3=”X-ray Based Imaging System” option4=”X-ray Baggage Identifying System” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022

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The correct full form of X-BIS is X-ray Baggage Inspection System.

X-BIS refers to the technology used for scanning luggage and bags using X-rays, commonly employed at airports, railway stations, and other security checkpoints for detecting prohibited items.

These systems are a standard part of security infrastructure for screening carried items without opening them. They produce images that security personnel interpret to identify potentially dangerous or forbidden objects inside the baggage.

34. Random frisking means frisking of :

Random frisking means frisking of :

[amp_mcq option1=”persons who are well-built.” option2=”persons who are drunk.” option3=”at least every fifth person.” option4=”few male persons only.” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022

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The correct answer is C) at least every fifth person. In a security context, ‘random frisking’ typically implies checking a sample of people passing through, rather than checking everyone (100% frisking) or checking only those who appear suspicious based on subjective criteria. While “every fifth person” is systematic rather than purely random, it represents a policy of frisking a portion of the population selected by a rule, which is a common method implemented under the umbrella term “random checks” in security to deter and detect threats without profiling or causing excessive delays. Options A, B, and D describe selection based on personal attributes, which is not random frisking.

– Random frisking in security is a technique used for deterrence and detection. It involves selecting individuals from a flow of people for searching based on a method that is unpredictable to the individual being frisked.
– This unpredictability can be achieved through various means, including truly random selection mechanisms or systematic sampling like checking every Nth person, provided the pattern isn’t easily predictable or is varied.
– The key is that the selection is not based on subjective criteria like appearance, behaviour (unless specific alert criteria are met, which would then fall under targeted search), or any form of discrimination.

The actual method for implementing random frisking varies across security agencies and locations. While a mathematically true random selection is ideal, practical considerations often lead to systematic sampling methods (like “every fifth person” or choosing based on a random number generator at intervals) or simply unpredictable selection by the security personnel based on operational needs, as long as it avoids discriminatory practices.

35. During the outbreak of fire in a unit, which one of the following shou

During the outbreak of fire in a unit, which one of the following should not be done ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Stop the fire from spreading” option2=”Reach the spot as early as possible with proper equipment and sufficient manpower” option3=”Inform the local police and wait till the police arrives” option4=”Rescue of the persons caught in the fire” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022

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The correct answer is C) Inform the local police and wait till the police arrives. While informing the local police and fire services is crucial during a fire outbreak, *waiting* for the police to arrive before taking action is incorrect and dangerous. Immediate actions like fire fighting, rescuing people, and preventing spread are paramount.

– Emergency procedures during a fire emphasize immediate response: raising the alarm, attempting to extinguish small fires if safe, evacuating people, and informing relevant authorities (fire services and police).
– Delaying action while waiting for authorities can lead to the fire escalating, causing more damage and endangering lives.
– Rescue of trapped persons and preventing the fire from spreading are critical immediate actions.

Fire fighting strategies follow a sequence often summarized as “RACE” or “PASS” (for using an extinguisher) and general emergency response protocols which prioritize life safety, then incident stabilization, and finally property conservation. The police’s role in a fire incident typically involves crowd control, investigation (arson, cause), and supporting other emergency services, but they are not the primary responders for fire suppression or immediate rescue in most cases; fire services are.

36. Which one of the following breeds of dogs is not suitable as sniffer d

Which one of the following breeds of dogs is not suitable as sniffer dogs in aviation security ?

[amp_mcq option1=”German Shepherd” option2=”Cocker Spaniel” option3=”Labrador” option4=”Pomeranian” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022

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The correct answer is D) Pomeranian. Pomeranians are small breed companion dogs and are not typically used for demanding detection roles like sniffer dogs in aviation security due to their size, temperament, and working drive compared to breeds specifically bred for scent work.

– Suitable sniffer dogs for security work, including aviation security, are chosen based on their strong sense of smell, trainability, temperament (calm, focused, non-aggressive), endurance, and drive to work.
– Breeds like German Shepherds, Labradors, Beagles, and Springer Spaniels (similar to Cocker Spaniels) are commonly used as detection dogs for explosives, narcotics, and other contraband due to these characteristics.

Different dog breeds are utilized for different types of detection work depending on the environment and target substance. While many breeds have a good sense of smell, successful sniffer dogs require specific physical and behavioral traits that allow them to work effectively in busy, noisy environments like airports and maintain focus for extended periods.

37. Which one of the following is not a High Intensity Explosive ?

Which one of the following is not a High Intensity Explosive ?

[amp_mcq option1=”TNT” option2=”RDX” option3=”Black gunpowder” option4=”Plastic explosive” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2022

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The correct answer is C) Black gunpowder. Black gunpowder is classified as a low explosive or propellant, not a high-intensity explosive.

– High explosives detonate, producing a supersonic shockwave. Low explosives deflagrate (burn rapidly), producing a subsonic pressure wave.
– TNT (Trinitrotoluene), RDX (Research Department Explosive), and plastic explosives (which typically use RDX or PETN as the main component) are all examples of high explosives known for their destructive power and high detonation velocity.

Common examples of high explosives include TNT, RDX, PETN, C-4, Semtex, Dynamite, and Detonating Cord. Low explosives include black powder and smokeless powder. Black gunpowder is a mixture of potassium nitrate (or sodium nitrate), charcoal, and sulfur. It is primarily used as a propellant in firearms and pyrotechnics.

38. Bureau of Civil Aviation Security has prescribed deployment of Counter

Bureau of Civil Aviation Security has prescribed deployment of Counter Unmanned Aircraft System (C-UAS) to protect airspace from rogue drones in and around the airfields. What is the approximate area prescribed to be covered with such C-UAS?

[amp_mcq option1=”5 km radius around the airfield” option2=”10 km radius around the airfield” option3=”10 km along the approach funnel area and 5 km radius in other direction of airfield” option4=”25 km along the approach funnel area and 10 km radius in other direction of airfield” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2021

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The Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS) has issued guidelines for the deployment of Counter Unmanned Aircraft Systems (C-UAS) at airfields to mitigate the threat posed by rogue drones. While specific system capabilities and airport layouts influence the precise coverage, initial BCAS circulars and general requirements often specify a protected area of a 10 km radius around the airfield. This area encompasses the critical airspace around the airport, including approach and departure paths, though refined guidelines might specify differential coverage. Among the given options, 10 km radius represents the most commonly cited general protected zone.

BCAS mandates C-UAS deployment to protect airfields from drone threats.

The exact coverage area can vary depending on the C-UAS technology deployed (e.g., detection range, jamming/neutralization range) and the specific risk assessment for the airport. However, a 10 km radius is a common reference point for the outer perimeter of the protected zone.

39. HHMD should be kept at what distance away from the passengers?

HHMD should be kept at what distance away from the passengers?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 cm” option2=”2.5 cm” option3=”5 cm” option4=”10 cm” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2021

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Proper technique for using a Hand Held Metal Detector (HHMD) involves scanning the person’s body systematically while holding the device close to the surface without necessarily touching it. Standard security guidelines often recommend holding the HHMD at a distance of approximately 2.5 cm (about 1 inch) from the person being screened. This distance allows the detector to effectively pick up metallic objects while avoiding unnecessary physical contact.

Maintaining a small, consistent distance is crucial for effective HHMD scanning.

The specific distance might vary slightly depending on the HHMD model and training guidelines, but a close proximity like 2.5 cm or 1 inch is a widely accepted standard to ensure thorough detection of concealed metallic items.

40. What should be the maximum gap between the wires/metal members in case

What should be the maximum gap between the wires/metal members in case of fence for perimeter security to preclude the possibility of unfettered movement of objects to and from the facility?

[amp_mcq option1=”8"” option2=”6"” option3=”10"” option4=”12"” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2021

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For perimeter security fencing, especially for critical infrastructure or high-security areas, the gap between vertical and horizontal members needs to be small enough to prevent a person from climbing through or passing objects through easily. While specific standards vary depending on the security level, a gap of 6 inches (approximately 15 cm) is a common and widely accepted maximum size for high-security fences like chain-link or welded mesh to effectively preclude the passage of a human body or significant objects. Larger gaps like 8″, 10″, or 12″ would compromise the effectiveness of the barrier.

Perimeter security fence design, including mesh size or gap between members, is critical to its effectiveness as a physical barrier against intrusion and passage of objects. Smaller gaps provide higher security.

Perimeter security fences are often part of a layered security system that includes detection systems (sensors), surveillance (CCTV), and response mechanisms. The physical barrier’s effectiveness is measured by its ability to delay or prevent penetration. Standards from organizations like ASTM (American Society for Testing and Materials) or government agencies specify requirements for various security levels.