Articles of the Constitution Archives

1. The Speaker of the House may allot time for the discussion of the matt

The Speaker of the House may allot time for the discussion of the matters referred to in the President’s address under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Article 82(1)” option2=”Article 84(1)” option3=”Article 86(1)” option4=”Article 88(1)” correct=”option3″]

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The correct answer is C.

The President’s Address to Parliament is a constitutional requirement under Article 86 and Article 87. Article 86(1) gives the President the right to address either House of Parliament or both Houses assembled together. Article 87(1) mandates a special address by the President at the commencement of the first session after each general election and the first session of each year. The discussion on the matters referred to in the President’s Address is a significant parliamentary business. While the Speaker’s power to allot time for this discussion is governed by the Rules of Procedure of the House (e.g., Rule 16 in Lok Sabha, framed under Article 118), these rules operationalize the constitutional provisions relating to the President’s Address. Among the given options, Article 86(1) is the constitutional provision directly related to the President’s right to address Parliament, which forms the basis for the subsequent discussion for which the Speaker allots time. The other articles are irrelevant to this context.

The discussion on the President’s Address takes place on a Motion of Thanks moved by a member and seconded by another. Amendments can be moved to the Motion of Thanks. The Prime Minister usually replies to the debate on the Motion of Thanks. The discussion is a crucial opportunity for members to debate government policies and programmes outlined in the Address.

2. In Article 164 of the Constitution of India, after Clause (1), which o

In Article 164 of the Constitution of India, after Clause (1), which one of the following clauses has been inserted ?

[amp_mcq option1=”The total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed ten percent of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State.” option2=”The total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed thirty percent of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State.” option3=”The total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State.” option4=”The total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed twenty percent of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State.” correct=”option3″]

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Article 164 of the Constitution deals with the provisions relating to Ministers in a State. The Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act, 2003, inserted a new clause, Clause (1A), after Clause (1) of Article 164. This clause specifies the maximum strength of the Council of Ministers in a State. It states that the total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State.

This amendment was brought in to curb the practice of having oversized Councils of Ministers, which was seen as contributing to the instability of governments and increasing public expenditure.

The 91st Amendment Act, 2003, also added Clause (1B) to Article 164, which states that a member of a State Legislative Assembly belonging to any political party who is disqualified for being a member of the Assembly on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a Minister. A similar provision regarding the maximum size of the Council of Ministers (15% of the strength of the Lok Sabha) was also added to Article 75(1A) for the Union Council of Ministers by the same amendment.

3. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India relat

Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India relates to National Commission for Scheduled Castes ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Article 332″ option2=”Article 334″ option3=”Article 336″ option4=”Article 338″ correct=”option4″]

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Article 338 of the Constitution of India provides for the National Commission for Scheduled Castes. Originally, Article 338 provided for a Special Officer for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The 65th Amendment Act, 1990, replaced the Special Officer with a multi-member National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. Later, the 89th Amendment Act, 2003, bifurcated this commission into two separate bodies: the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (under Article 338) and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (under Article 338A).

The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is a constitutional body responsible for investigating and monitoring all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the Scheduled Castes under the Constitution or under any other law or order of the Government and to evaluate the working of those safeguards.

Article 332 deals with the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assemblies of the States. Article 334 deals with the period of reservation of seats and special representation to cease. Article 336 deals with special provision for Anglo-Indian community in certain services.

4. In which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, t

In which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children between the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Article 20A” option2=”Article 21A” option3=”Article 22A” option4=”Article 23A” correct=”option2″]

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Article 21A of the Constitution of India, inserted by the Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002, makes elementary education a fundamental right. It states that “The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine.”

This Article places a constitutional obligation on the State to ensure access to education for children in the specified age group. It gave constitutional backing to the right to education, which was previously only a Directive Principle of State Policy (Article 45).

Following the insertion of Article 21A, the Parliament enacted the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 (RTE Act) to provide the legal framework for implementing this fundamental right. The 86th Amendment also changed the subject matter of Article 45 and added a new fundamental duty under Article 51A(k).

5. Which of the following statements is not correct?

Which of the following statements is not correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”The Legislature of a State may, by law, establish a Contingency Fund in the nature of imprest.” option2=”The Contingency Fund of the State shall be placed at the disposal of the Chief Minister of the State.” option3=”The fund shall be paid from time to time such sums as may be determined by such law.” option4=”The Contingency Fund is meant to enable advances to be made for the purpose of meeting unforeseen expenditure pending authorization of such expenditure by the Legislature.” correct=”option2″]

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Statement B is not correct. The Contingency Fund of the State, established under Article 267(2) of the Constitution and relevant state legislation, is placed at the disposal of the Governor of the State, not the Chief Minister. Advances are made from this fund by the Governor for meeting unforeseen expenditure, pending authorization by the State Legislature.

Control over the Contingency Fund of the State is vested in the Governor, who operates it on behalf of the Legislature to provide immediate funds for unforeseen events. The Chief Minister, as head of government, can recommend the use of the fund, but the constitutional authority holding the fund is the Governor.

Statement A is correct; Article 267(2) permits the Legislature of a State to establish a Contingency Fund. Statement C is correct; the sums to be paid into the fund are determined by law. Statement D is correct; the purpose of the Contingency Fund is precisely to enable advances for unforeseen expenditure when the Legislature is not in session or before it can authorize such expenditure.

6. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India presc

Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India prescribes for the submission of an annual report of the work done by the State Public Service Commission ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Article 320″ option2=”Article 323″ option3=”Article 326″ option4=”Article 330″ correct=”option2″]

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The correct answer is B) Article 323.

Article 323 of the Constitution of India deals with the reports of the Public Service Commissions. Article 323(2) specifically states that the report relating to the work done by a State Public Service Commission shall be presented annually to the Governor of the State.

The Governor then causes this report to be laid before the State Legislature, along with a memorandum explaining the cases, if any, where the advice of the Commission was not accepted and the reasons for such non-acceptance. Article 320 deals with the functions of Public Service Commissions, and Article 315 deals with the establishment of Public Service Commissions for the Union and the States.

7. Consider the following statements : The term ‘budget’ has nowhere be

Consider the following statements :

The term ‘budget’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution.
Article 112 of the Constitution of India deals with the budget.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option3″]

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Both statements are correct. Statement 1 is correct because the term ‘Budget’ is not explicitly used in the Constitution of India. Instead, Article 112 refers to the ‘Annual Financial Statement’. Statement 2 is also correct as Article 112 of the Constitution deals with the presentation of the Annual Financial Statement (which is commonly referred to as the Budget) to both Houses of Parliament.

The Constitution uses the term ‘Annual Financial Statement’ in Article 112, not ‘Budget’. Article 112 outlines the procedure for presenting the government’s estimated receipts and expenditures for the coming financial year.

Article 112 requires the President to cause to be laid before both Houses of Parliament an annual financial statement showing the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for the financial year. This statement is divided into two parts: revenue budget and capital budget.

8. Consider the following statements regarding various funds in India :

Consider the following statements regarding various funds in India :

Article 266 deals with Contingency Fund of India.
For operating Public Account of India and Contingency Fund of India, parliamentary approval is not needed.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option2″]

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Statement 1: Article 266 deals with the Consolidated Fund and the Public Account of India (and of each State). The Contingency Fund of India is dealt with under Article 267. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2: For operating the Public Account of India and the Contingency Fund of India, parliamentary approval is not needed at the time of withdrawal or disbursement. The Public Account consists of funds held by the government in trust, and expenditures from it do not require appropriation by Parliament. Advances from the Contingency Fund are made to meet unforeseen expenditures pending authorization by Parliament, meaning the executive can withdraw funds without immediate parliamentary approval (though subsequent approval for replenishment is needed from the Consolidated Fund). In contrast, withdrawals from the Consolidated Fund require prior parliamentary appropriation. Therefore, statement 2 is correct in the context of distinguishing operations from these funds compared to the Consolidated Fund.

– Consolidated Fund (Article 266): All revenues received by the government, all loans raised, and all money received in repayment of loans. Expenditure requires parliamentary appropriation.
– Public Account (Article 266): All other public money (e.g., provident funds, small savings). Operated by executive action; no appropriation needed.
– Contingency Fund (Article 267): An imprest fund for meeting unforeseen expenditure. Operated by executive; requires subsequent parliamentary approval for replenishment.

The Public Account transactions do not enter the budget since they do not involve government expenditure or revenue in the strict sense. The Contingency Fund’s corpus is decided by Parliament (currently ₹30,000 crore).

9. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India direc

Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Article 50″ option2=”Article 52″ option3=”Article 58″ option4=”Article 60″ correct=”option1″]

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Article 50 of the Constitution of India directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.

Article 50 is a Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP). It aims at securing the independence of the judiciary from executive control, which is considered essential for the impartial administration of justice.

Article 52 deals with the President of India. Article 58 deals with the qualifications for election as President. Article 60 deals with the oath or affirmation by the President. None of these pertain to the separation of the judiciary from the executive.

10. Which one of the following Articles in Part III of the Constitution of

Which one of the following Articles in Part III of the Constitution of India is related to free and compulsory education ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Article 19″ option2=”Article 20A” option3=”Article 21″ option4=”Article 21A” correct=”option4″]

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The correct answer is D, Article 21A.

Article 21A was inserted into the Constitution by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002. It declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine. This makes the right to education a Fundamental Right for children in this age group.

Article 21 guarantees protection of life and personal liberty. Article 19 guarantees various freedoms like speech and expression. Article 20 provides protection in respect of conviction for offences. The 86th Amendment also amended Article 45 (Directive Principle) and added Article 51A(k) (Fundamental Duty) relating to education.