2024

61. Consider the following statements : As per Section 2(i) of RTI Act, 20

Consider the following statements :
As per Section 2(i) of RTI Act, 2005, “record” includes

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  • 1. any microfilm, microfiche and facsimile copy of a document
  • 2. any reproduction of image or images embodied in such microfilm
  • 3. any other material produced by a computer or any other device

Which of the above statements are correct ?

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1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
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The correct option is D because all three statements accurately describe what constitutes a “record” as per Section 2(i) of the RTI Act, 2005.
Section 2(i) of the Right to Information Act, 2005 defines “record” very broadly to include various forms of stored information, not just traditional paper documents.
According to Section 2(i), “record” includes: (a) any document, manuscript and file; (b) any microfilm, microfiche and facsimile copy of a document; (c) any reproduction of image or images embodied in such microfilm; and (d) any other material produced by a computer or any other device. This broad definition ensures that information held in modern formats is also accessible under the Act.

62. Consider the following statements: RTI Act, 2005 is not applicable t

Consider the following statements:
RTI Act, 2005 is not applicable to

  • 1. all non-Government organisations substantially financed by political parties.
  • 2. all bodies owned, controlled or substantially financed by the appropriate Government.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

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1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither I nor 2
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The correct answer is A) 1 only.
Statement 1: The RTI Act, 2005 applies to ‘public authorities’. Section 2(h) defines public authority. While it includes non-government organisations *substantially financed* by the appropriate Government, it does *not* include non-Government organisations substantially financed by political parties. Therefore, the RTI Act is generally *not* applicable to all non-Government organisations substantially financed by political parties. Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2: Section 2(h)(d)(i) includes any body owned, controlled or substantially financed, directly or indirectly, by funds provided by the appropriate Government within the definition of ‘public authority’. Therefore, the RTI Act *is* applicable to such bodies. Statement 2, which says the Act is *not* applicable, is incorrect.
The definition of ‘public authority’ is crucial in determining the scope of the RTI Act. While bodies substantially financed by the government are covered, private bodies or NGOs primarily funded by sources other than the government (like political parties, private donations etc.) are typically outside the direct purview of the Act, unless they fall under another category (e.g., established by law, performing a public function etc., though the latter has been subject to judicial interpretation).

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63. Which one of the following sections of the RTI Act, 2005 deals with se

Which one of the following sections of the RTI Act, 2005 deals with severability ?

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Section 9
Section 10
Section 11
Section 12
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The correct answer is B) Section 10.
Section 10 of the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, deals with the concept of ‘severability’. It states that if a request for information contains information that is exempt from disclosure, access may be provided to that part of the record which does not contain such exempt information after the severance of the part containing the exempt information.
This section allows for partial disclosure of information when only a portion of the record is exempt, ensuring that non-exempt information is still made available. Section 9 deals with grounds for rejection of a request. Section 11 deals with third-party information. Section 12 deals with the constitution of the Central Information Commission.

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64. Consider the following statements: As per Section 2(h) of the RTI Act,

Consider the following statements:
As per Section 2(h) of the RTI Act, 2005, “public authority” means any authority or body or institution of self-government established or constituted :

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  • 1. by any other law made by the Parliament.
  • 2. by any other law made by State legislature.
  • 3. by notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
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The correct answer is D) 1, 2 and 3.
As per Section 2(h) of the RTI Act, 2005, a “public authority” means any authority or body or institution of self-government established or constituted by or under the Constitution; by any other law made by Parliament; by any other law made by State Legislature; or by notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government, and includes any body owned, controlled or substantially financed; or non-Government organization substantially financed, directly or indirectly by funds provided by the appropriate Government.
Therefore, all three statements correctly describe ways in which a public authority can be established or constituted under the RTI Act, 2005.

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65. What does the 10 th Schedule of the Constitution of India contain ?

What does the 10th Schedule of the Constitution of India contain ?

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Provisions relating to disqualification on the ground of defection
Administration and control of tribal areas of North-eastern States
Powers, authority, and responsibilities of municipalities
Administration and control of Scheduled areas
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The correct answer is A) Provisions relating to disqualification on the ground of defection.
The 10th Schedule of the Constitution of India was added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, and contains the anti-defection law, which provides for the disqualification of Members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the ground of defection.
Option B describes provisions found in the Sixth Schedule. Option C describes provisions found in Part IXA and the Twelfth Schedule. Option D describes provisions found in the Fifth Schedule.

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66. Which one of the following parts of the Constitution of India deals wi

Which one of the following parts of the Constitution of India deals with the provisions relating to citizenship ?

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Part II
Part IV
Part V
Part VI
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The correct answer is A) Part II.
Part II of the Constitution of India, comprising Articles 5 to 11, deals with provisions relating to citizenship.
Part II lays down who were citizens of India at the commencement of the Constitution (January 26, 1950) and empowers Parliament to make laws regarding the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship. The Citizenship Act, 1955 is the primary law enacted by Parliament in this regard.

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67. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India presc

Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India prescribes for the submission of an annual report of the work done by the State Public Service Commission ?

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Article 320
Article 323
Article 326
Article 330
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The correct answer is B) Article 323.
Article 323 of the Constitution of India deals with the reports of the Public Service Commissions. Article 323(2) specifically states that the report relating to the work done by a State Public Service Commission shall be presented annually to the Governor of the State.
The Governor then causes this report to be laid before the State Legislature, along with a memorandum explaining the cases, if any, where the advice of the Commission was not accepted and the reasons for such non-acceptance. Article 320 deals with the functions of Public Service Commissions, and Article 315 deals with the establishment of Public Service Commissions for the Union and the States.

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68. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India incl

Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India includes the provision regarding anti-defection law ?

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Sixth Schedule
Seventh Schedule
Tenth Schedule
Eleventh Schedule
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The correct answer is C) Tenth Schedule.
The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding the disqualification of Members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the ground of defection. It is popularly known as the ‘anti-defection law’.
The Tenth Schedule was inserted into the Constitution by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985. Its primary objective was to curb the practice of political defections by legislators elected on a party’s ticket. It specifies the circumstances under which a legislator may be disqualified on the ground of defection.

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69. The right to move freely throughout the territory of India comes under

The right to move freely throughout the territory of India comes under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India ?

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Article 11
Article 13
Article 19
Article 22
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The correct answer is C) Article 19.
Article 19 of the Constitution of India guarantees certain fundamental rights regarding freedom. Specifically, Article 19(1)(d) provides the right “to move freely throughout the territory of India.”
Article 19 guarantees six freedoms: freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession. These rights are available only to citizens and are subject to reasonable restrictions imposed by the state on specified grounds. The right to move freely throughout the territory of India allows citizens to travel from one part of the country to another without hindrance, subject to restrictions for the protection of scheduled tribes or the general public interest.

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70. ‘e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi’ is launched by which one of the following ministr

‘e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi’ is launched by which one of the following ministries of the Government of India ?

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Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
Ministry of Food Processing Industries
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The correct answer is B) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
The ‘e-Kisan Upaj Nidhi’ (Digital Gateway) was launched by the Department of Food and Public Distribution, which falls under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. The initiative aims to provide farmers with warehousing options for their produce.
This digital platform facilitates online registration of farmers, storage of their produce in registered warehouses under the Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA), and obtaining electronic Negotiable Warehouse Receipts (eNWRs). This enables farmers to store their produce closer to their location and secure post-harvest loans.

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