2024

31. Which one of the following organizations has launched the White Rabbit

Which one of the following organizations has launched the White Rabbit Collaboration to foster the uptake of White Rabbit technology by industry ?

[amp_mcq option1=”CERN” option2=”ILO” option3=”UNICEF” option4=”UNDP” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
Download PDFAttempt Online
The organization that launched the White Rabbit Collaboration to foster the uptake of White Rabbit technology by industry is CERN.
The White Rabbit project is an Ethernet-based network for general purpose data transfer, which provides sub-nanosecond accuracy and picosecond precision in synchronization. It was initially developed at CERN for the upgrade of its accelerator control and data acquisition systems. CERN initiated the White Rabbit Collaboration to bring together institutions and companies interested in adopting and developing this technology.
White Rabbit technology combines the precision of the PTP (Precision Time Protocol) protocol with the synchronization capabilities of Synchronous Ethernet. It is now used in various fields beyond physics, including smart grids, telecommunications, and financial trading, wherever high-precision time synchronization is critical.

32. Indian Army Aviation Corps has established its first Apache Attack Hel

Indian Army Aviation Corps has established its first Apache Attack Helicopter unit at which one of the following places ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Jodhpur, Rajasthan” option2=”Pune, Maharashtra” option3=”Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh” option4=”Indore, Madhya Pradesh” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is Jodhpur, Rajasthan (A).
The Indian Army is raising its own fleet of AH-64E Apache attack helicopters. The first squadron for the Army Aviation Corps was established at Jodhpur, Rajasthan. This location is strategically important for operations, particularly towards the western borders.
The Indian Air Force already operates Apache helicopters, but the Army acquiring its own fleet marks a significant enhancement of its combat capabilities, providing dedicated aerial fire support and reconnaissance assets directly under Army command. Jodhpur serves as a key airbase in the western sector.

33. What is theme of ‘World Asthma Day 2024’?

What is theme of ‘World Asthma Day 2024’?

[amp_mcq option1=”Closing Gaps in Asthma Care” option2=”Uncovering Asthma Misconceptions” option3=”Enough Asthma Deaths” option4=”Asthma Education Empowers” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is Asthma Education Empowers (D).
World Asthma Day is an annual event organized by the Global Initiative for Asthma (GINA) to improve asthma awareness and care worldwide. The theme for World Asthma Day 2024, observed on May 7, 2024, was ‘Asthma Education Empowers’.
GINA sets a theme each year to focus global attention on a particular aspect of asthma care or management. The 2024 theme emphasized the importance of educating people with asthma about their condition and how to manage it effectively, highlighting that informed patients are empowered to take control of their health.

34. Which two Indian players won the Thailand Open 2024 badminton men’s do

Which two Indian players won the Thailand Open 2024 badminton men’s doubles title ?

[amp_mcq option1=”HS Prannoy and Lakshya Sen” option2=”Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty” option3=”Sai Praneeth and Sameer Verma” option4=”Nikhil Kanetkar and Dhruv Kapila” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty (B).
Indian men’s doubles pair Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty are prominent figures in international badminton. They won the Thailand Open 2024 men’s doubles title, defeating their opponents in the final.
HS Prannoy and Lakshya Sen are successful Indian singles players. Sai Praneeth and Sameer Verma are also singles players, though less prominent recently. Nikhil Kanetkar was a former singles player, and Dhruv Kapila is a doubles player who has played with other partners. Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty form India’s top-ranked men’s doubles team.

35. Which of the following would be advisable to curb the revenue deficit

Which of the following would be advisable to curb the revenue deficit ?

1. Cutting expenditures on subsidy

2. Cutting social expenditures

3. Imposing import controls

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is 1 and 2 only (A).
Revenue deficit is the excess of total revenue expenditure of the government over its total revenue receipts. To reduce the revenue deficit, the government must either increase its revenue receipts (e.g., through taxes) or decrease its revenue expenditure. Cutting expenditures on subsidies (1) and cutting social expenditures (2) are both measures that reduce government revenue expenditure, and are therefore advisable steps to curb the revenue deficit.
Imposing import controls (3), such as tariffs or quotas, is primarily a trade policy tool aimed at influencing the balance of trade, protecting domestic industries, or potentially generating customs revenue (which is part of revenue receipts). While higher customs duty can increase revenue receipts, import controls are not a primary or direct measure focused on managing the balance between general revenue expenditure and revenue receipts. Cutting expenditure is a more direct way to address a revenue deficit.

36. Which one of the following is a qualitative tool of monetary policy ?

Which one of the following is a qualitative tool of monetary policy ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Bank Rate” option2=”Credit Ceiling” option3=”Credit Rationing” option4=”Cash Reserve Ratio” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is Credit Rationing (C).
Monetary policy tools are generally classified into quantitative and qualitative measures. Quantitative tools affect the overall volume of credit in the economy (e.g., Bank Rate, CRR, Open Market Operations). Qualitative tools, also known as selective credit controls, aim to influence the direction or flow of credit to specific sectors or for particular purposes. Credit Rationing, where the central bank or government restricts the availability of credit to certain sectors or mandates allocation to others, is a classic example of a qualitative tool.
Bank Rate and Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) are quantitative tools that impact the lending capacity and cost for banks across the board. Credit Ceiling, while potentially limiting overall credit, can sometimes be implemented in a selective manner, blurring the lines, but Credit Rationing is a more explicit form of selective credit control, making it a clear qualitative tool used to manage the distribution of credit rather than just its total volume.

37. Consider the following taxes : 1. Stamp Duty 2. Property Tax 3. Exc

Consider the following taxes :

1. Stamp Duty

2. Property Tax

3. Excise Duty

Which of the above is/are the production taxes ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is 3 only (C).
Production taxes are taxes on goods and services as they are produced, sold, or used, independent of income and property. Excise Duty is a tax on the manufacture or production of goods. Stamp Duty is a tax on the execution of certain documents (like sale deeds, agreements). Property Tax is a tax levied on the ownership of property. Therefore, among the given options, only Excise Duty is directly related to the act of production.
While India has largely moved to the Goods and Services Tax (GST) which subsumed most excise duties, the concept of excise duty as a production tax is fundamental. Stamp duty is a transaction tax, and property tax is a wealth or ownership tax. The question asks which is a production tax, and Excise Duty fits this definition.

38. What is the General Anti-Avoidance Rule (GAAR) ?

What is the General Anti-Avoidance Rule (GAAR) ?

[amp_mcq option1=”GAAR is a set of rules aimed at curbing aggressive tax planning.” option2=”GAAR is a set of rules aimed at curbing money laundering by Indians to foreign countries.” option3=”GAAR is a set of rules aimed at regulating investments by Indians in foreign countries.” option4=”GAAR is a set of rules aimed at regulating investments by foreigners in India.” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is GAAR is a set of rules aimed at curbing aggressive tax planning (A).
The General Anti-Avoidance Rule (GAAR) is a tax legislation designed to tackle aggressive tax planning arrangements that are primarily aimed at obtaining a tax benefit, without commercial substance or purpose other than tax avoidance. It gives tax authorities the power to deny tax benefits that arise from such arrangements.
GAAR is distinct from rules targeting money laundering (which falls under anti-money laundering laws like PMLA in India) or rules regulating cross-border investments (which are part of FEMA and RBI regulations). GAAR specifically focuses on arrangements considered ‘impermissible avoidance arrangements’ under the Income Tax Act, where the main purpose is to obtain a tax benefit and the arrangement lacks commercial rationale.

39. A Non-Resident Indian wants to get approval under Government route for

A Non-Resident Indian wants to get approval under Government route for FDI in ‘Single Brand’ product retailing in India. Which among the following would be the appropriate agency to approach for this application ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Regional Office of Reserve Bank of India” option2=”Head Office of Reserve Bank of India” option3=”Department of Economic Affairs” option4=”Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (D).
In India, the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), which was formerly known as the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is the nodal department responsible for formulating and implementing the FDI policy. Applications for FDI under the government approval route, including for ‘Single Brand’ product retailing beyond the automatic route limits, are processed through the Foreign Investment Facilitation Portal (FIFP), which is managed by DPIIT.
While the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is involved in the regulation of foreign exchange and monitoring of FDI inflows/outflows, the policy formulation and approval process under the government route for FDI proposals typically falls under the purview of DPIIT (formerly DIPP). The Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) in the Ministry of Finance is also involved in broader economic policies, but the specific handling of FDI applications under the government route is managed by DPIIT. The name ‘Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion’ (DIPP) was used before the renaming to DPIIT; in the context of a question likely referencing the structure before the rename, DIPP is the correct choice. Assuming the question reflects the older terminology, DIPP (Option D) is correct. If it were updated terminology, the option would likely be DPIIT. Given the option, DIPP is the intended answer.

40. What is the impact on the “Social overhead capital requirements” of an

What is the impact on the “Social overhead capital requirements” of an economy, if the population increases ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Social overhead capital requirements fall.” option2=”Social overhead capital requirements remain unchanged.” option3=”Social overhead capital requirements increase.” option4=”Social overhead capital requirements fall drastically.” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC Combined Section Officer – 2024
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is Social overhead capital requirements increase (C).
Social overhead capital refers to the basic infrastructure and services necessary for economic development and social well-being, such as roads, railways, ports, communication systems, power grids, water supply, sanitation, schools, and hospitals. An increase in population directly leads to a greater demand for these facilities and services, thereby increasing the requirement for social overhead capital to maintain or improve living standards and support economic activity.
A growing population needs more housing, transportation, energy, education, healthcare, and civic amenities. Without a corresponding increase in social overhead capital, existing infrastructure becomes strained, leading to congestion, reduced quality of services, and potential bottlenecks for economic growth. Therefore, population growth necessitates significant investment in expanding and upgrading social infrastructure.
Page 1Page 2Page 3Page 4Page 5
Exit mobile version