2024

111. Which one of the following parts of the Constitution of India deals wi

Which one of the following parts of the Constitution of India deals with official language ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Part XVI” option2=”Part XVII” option3=”Part X” option4=”Part XV” correct=”option2″]

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Part XVII of the Constitution of India deals with the official language of the Union and the States.
Articles 343 to 351 in Part XVII of the Constitution contain provisions relating to the official language. These articles cover aspects like the official language of the Union, regional languages, language of the judiciary and texts of laws, and special directives related to language.
Part XVI deals with special provisions relating to certain classes. Part X deals with Scheduled and Tribal Areas. Part XV deals with Elections. Therefore, Part XVII is the correct part for official language.

112. The Directive Principles of State Policy are enshrined in which one of

The Directive Principles of State Policy are enshrined in which one of the following parts of the Constitution of India ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Part I” option2=”Part II” option3=”Part III” option4=”Part IV” correct=”option4″]

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The correct answer is D, Part IV.
Part IV of the Constitution of India contains the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs). These principles are guidelines or recommendations to the State for making laws and policies. They are fundamental in the governance of the country, though they are not enforceable by any court.
Part I deals with The Union and its Territory, Part II with Citizenship, and Part III with Fundamental Rights. Fundamental Rights are enforceable by courts, unlike the DPSPs.

113. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India cont

Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains the list of languages recognized by the Constitution ?

[amp_mcq option1=”First Schedule” option2=”Second Schedule” option3=”Eighth Schedule” option4=”Ninth Schedule” correct=”option3″]

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The correct answer is C, Eighth Schedule.
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India lists the languages recognized by the Constitution. Initially, there were 14 languages in this schedule. Over time, several languages were added, and currently, there are 22 languages recognized.
The First Schedule lists the States and Union Territories. The Second Schedule contains provisions relating to emoluments, allowances, and privileges for various constitutional functionaries. The Ninth Schedule was added by the 1st Amendment in 1951 and originally contained acts and regulations that could not be challenged in court, although its scope has been limited by judicial review rulings.

114. Which one of the following amendments of the Constitution of India low

Which one of the following amendments of the Constitution of India lowered the voting age from 21 years to 18 years ?

[amp_mcq option1=”42nd Amendment” option2=”44th Amendment” option3=”61st Amendment” option4=”73rd Amendment” correct=”option3″]

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The correct answer is C, 61st Amendment.
The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988 lowered the voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies of States from 21 years to 18 years. This amendment is significant as it increased the participation of young people in the democratic process.
The 42nd Amendment (1976) is often called the ‘Mini Constitution’. The 44th Amendment (1978) repealed many of the provisions of the 42nd Amendment. The 73rd Amendment (1992) provided constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions.

115. The National Emergency proclaimed under Article 352 of the Constitutio

The National Emergency proclaimed under Article 352 of the Constitution of India affects which of the following ?
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  • 1. Fundamental Rights
  • 2. Directive Principles of State Policy

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option1″]

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The correct answer is A, 1 only.
A National Emergency proclaimed under Article 352 significantly affects Fundamental Rights. Article 358 automatically suspends the six rights guaranteed by Article 19 upon a proclamation of National Emergency based on war or external aggression (not armed rebellion). Article 359 empowers the President to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of other Fundamental Rights (except Articles 20 and 21) during a National Emergency. Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) are not suspended during a National Emergency; they continue to guide the state in making laws, although governmental priorities and actions might shift based on the emergency situation.
The effect on Fundamental Rights is a direct and constitutional consequence of the emergency proclamation (either automatic suspension or presidential order), whereas DPSPs remain guiding principles, not subject to suspension. Therefore, the emergency directly affects Fundamental Rights as provided in the Constitution.

116. Which one of the following parts of the Constitution of India deals wi

Which one of the following parts of the Constitution of India deals with the Executive ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Part I” option2=”Part II” option3=”Part III” option4=”Part V” correct=”option4″]

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The correct answer is D, Part V.
Part V of the Constitution of India deals with ‘The Union’. This part is further divided into chapters, and Chapter I specifically covers ‘The Executive’, which includes provisions regarding the President, Vice-President, Council of Ministers, and the Attorney-General of India. This part outlines the structure, powers, and functions of the Union Executive.
Part I deals with The Union and its Territory, Part II with Citizenship, and Part III with Fundamental Rights. Part VI deals with the States, including the State Executive.

117. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India can b

Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India can be used by the President of India to declare financial emergency ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Article 32″ option2=”Article 349″ option3=”Article 360″ option4=”Article 365″ correct=”option3″]

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The correct answer is C, Article 360.
Article 360 of the Constitution of India empowers the President to declare a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of India or of any part of the territory thereof is threatened.
Article 32 deals with the right to constitutional remedies (Fundamental Right). Article 349 deals with special procedure regarding Bills relating to language. Article 365 deals with the effect of failure to comply with or give effect to directions given by the Union, which can lead to the imposition of President’s Rule under Article 356. A financial emergency has never been declared in India.

118. Which one of the following Articles in Part III of the Constitution of

Which one of the following Articles in Part III of the Constitution of India is related to free and compulsory education ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Article 19″ option2=”Article 20A” option3=”Article 21″ option4=”Article 21A” correct=”option4″]

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The correct answer is D, Article 21A.
Article 21A was inserted into the Constitution by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002. It declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine. This makes the right to education a Fundamental Right for children in this age group.
Article 21 guarantees protection of life and personal liberty. Article 19 guarantees various freedoms like speech and expression. Article 20 provides protection in respect of conviction for offences. The 86th Amendment also amended Article 45 (Directive Principle) and added Article 51A(k) (Fundamental Duty) relating to education.

119. Which part of the Constitution of India deals with the Government in t

Which part of the Constitution of India deals with the Government in the States ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Part IV” option2=”Part V” option3=”Part VI” option4=”Part IX” correct=”option3″]

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The correct answer is C, Part VI.
Part VI of the Constitution of India is titled “The States” and deals with the structure and functions of the state governments, including the Executive (Governor, Council of Ministers, Advocate General), the State Legislature, and the High Courts within the states.
Part IV deals with Directive Principles of State Policy, Part V deals with The Union (Union Government and Judiciary), and Part IX deals with the Panchayats (Local Self-Government in rural areas).

120. During the pendency of any proceeding before a Board of Conciliation,

During the pendency of any proceeding before a Board of Conciliation, Labour Court, Tribunal or National Tribunal, which of the following actions cannot be taken by an employer under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?

  • 1. Altering in regard to any matter not connected with the dispute, the service conditions applicable to a workman immediately before commencement of such proceedings
  • 2. Discharging or punishing a workman for a misconduct that is not connected with the pending dispute
  • 3. Discharging or punishing a protected workman after instituting a Disciplinary Committee against him

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

[amp_mcq option1=”2 only” option2=”3 only” option3=”1 and 2″ option4=”1 and 3″ correct=”option2″]

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The correct answer is B, meaning only statement 3 describes an action that cannot be taken by an employer during the pendency of proceedings without following a specific procedure under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
Section 33 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 imposes restrictions on an employer’s ability to alter service conditions or discharge/punish workmen during the pendency of conciliation, arbitration, or adjudication proceedings.
– Section 33(1): Requires express permission from the authority for actions concerning any matter connected with the dispute, including alteration of service conditions or discharge/punishment.
– Section 33(2): Allows alterations in service conditions regarding any matter *not* connected with the dispute, or discharge/punishment for misconduct *not* connected with the dispute. However, these actions are subject to conditions: the workman must be paid one month’s wages, and an application for approval of the action must be made simultaneously to the authority. This implies such actions *can* be taken without *prior* permission, but require subsequent approval.
– Section 33(3): Provides special protection for ‘protected workmen’ (trade union office bearers). Any action against them, including discharge or punishment, whether or not connected with the dispute, requires *express prior permission* from the authority.

Statement 1 describes altering service conditions not connected with the dispute. This is permissible under Section 33(2), subject to conditions, meaning it *can* be taken.
Statement 2 describes discharging or punishing a workman for misconduct not connected with the dispute. This is permissible under Section 33(2), subject to conditions, meaning it *can* be taken.
Statement 3 describes discharging or punishing a ‘protected workman’. Under Section 33(3), this action *cannot* be taken without express prior permission from the authority. This is a more stringent restriction than under 33(2). Therefore, among the given options, this action is the one that “cannot be taken” unilaterally or without the required prior approval process.

The purpose of Section 33 is to maintain the status quo during proceedings to prevent victimisation of workmen and ensure smooth settlement of industrial disputes. The provisions of Section 33(2) are often referred to as involving ‘controlled’ alterations or actions, while Section 33(3) for protected workmen requires strict ‘prior permission’.
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