2023 Archives

41. The Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission is appointed by th

The Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission is appointed by the President of India on the basis of recommendations of a Committee. Who among the following heads the Committee ?

The Prime Minister of India

The Minister in charge of Home Affairs

The Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha

The Minister in charge of Law and Justice

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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The Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is appointed by the President of India based on the recommendations of a high-powered committee. This committee is headed by the Prime Minister of India.

– The committee recommending the appointment of the NHRC Chairperson and members is chaired by the Prime Minister.
– The committee includes the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, the Leader of the Opposition in both Houses of Parliament, and the Union Home Minister.

The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 lays down the composition of this committee responsible for recommending appointments to the NHRC. The Chairperson and members are appointed by the President based on these recommendations.

42. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? The Director Gene

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

The Director General of the CISF can confer local rank up to the rank of Commandant only
The Director General of the CISF cannot delegate the power of conferring local ranks
The officer who has been granted a local rank shall not be entitled to any extra pay and allowances

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1, 2 and 3

2 and 3 only

3 only

2 only

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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The correct answer is C.

This question relates to the power of the Director General of CISF to confer local ranks and the implications of holding such ranks, as governed by CISF Rules.

Let’s examine each statement based on Rule 23 of the CISF Rules, 2001, which deals with local ranks:
1. The Director General of the CISF can confer local rank up to the rank of Commandant only: Rule 23(1) states that the Director-General may confer any local rank *not higher than that of an Inspector*. This statement is incorrect.
2. The Director General of the CISF cannot delegate the power of conferring local ranks: Rule 23(2) states that the Director-General *may* delegate his power to any other officer not below the rank of Deputy Inspector-General, with the previous approval of the Central Government. This statement is incorrect.
3. The officer who has been granted a local rank shall not be entitled to any extra pay and allowances: Rule 23(3) explicitly states that a member of the Force on whom a local rank is conferred “shall not be entitled to any extra pay or allowance in consequence of his holding such rank.” This statement is correct.

Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.

43. Which of the following statements with regard to CISF Act is/are corre

Which of the following statements with regard to CISF Act is/are correct ?

Head Constable is an under officer
Sub-inspector is a supervisory officer
Joint venture is not defined in CISF Act
Director General is appointed under Section 4 of the CISF Act

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

3 and 4 only

1 only

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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The correct answer is A.

The question pertains to definitions and provisions within the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968, and potentially relevant rules like the CISF Rules, 2001.

Let’s examine each statement based on the CISF Act, 1968, and CISF Rules, 2001:
1. Head Constable is an under officer: As per the CISF Rules, ranks like Head Constable, Naik, Lance Naik are classified as “Under Officers”. This statement is correct.
2. Sub-inspector is a supervisory officer: As per the CISF Rules, “supervisory officer” includes Assistant Commandants, Inspectors, Sub-Inspectors, and Assistant Sub-Inspectors. This statement is correct.
3. Joint venture is not defined in CISF Act: The definitions section (Section 2) of the CISF Act, 1968 does not include a definition for “Joint venture”. This statement is correct.
4. Director General is appointed under Section 4 of the CISF Act: Section 4 lists the classes and ranks of members of the Force, including the Director-General. However, Section 5 of the Act explicitly deals with the “Appointment of Director-General and other officers” by the Central Government. Thus, the DG is appointed under Section 5, not Section 4. This statement is incorrect.

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct, while statement 4 is incorrect. Reviewing the options, Option A (2 and 3 only) is the only option that consists entirely of correct statements, even though statement 1 is also correct. Given the options, A is the most likely intended correct answer, implying statements 2 and 3 are considered correct.

44. Which of the following is/are minor penalties ? 1. Withholding of i

Which of the following is/are minor penalties ?

1. Withholding of increment of pay
2. Reduction to a lower stage in the time scale of pay by one stage, for a period not exceeding 3 years with cumulative effect and adversely affecting pension
3. Withholding of promotion
4. Compulsory retirement in accordance with the provisions relating to superannuation or retirement

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 4 only

None of the above

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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The correct answer is B.

The classification of penalties into minor and major categories for central government employees is defined in the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965.

According to Rule 11 of the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965:
Minor Penalties include: (i) censure; (ii) withholding of promotion; (iii) recovery of pecuniary loss; (iv) reduction to a lower stage in the time-scale for a period not exceeding three years, without cumulative effect and not adversely affecting pension; (v) withholding of increments of pay.

Major Penalties include: (vi) reduction to a lower stage in the time-scale of pay for a specified period, with cumulative effect and adversely affecting his pension; (vii) reduction to lower time-scale/grade/post/service; (viii) compulsory retirement; (ix) removal from service; (x) dismissal from service.

Evaluating the given points:
1. Withholding of increment of pay – This is listed as a minor penalty (v). (Correct)
2. Reduction to a lower stage in the time scale of pay… with cumulative effect and adversely affecting pension – This matches the description of a major penalty (vi). (Incorrect)
3. Withholding of promotion – This is listed as a minor penalty (ii). (Correct)
4. Compulsory retirement… – Compulsory retirement *as a penalty* is listed as a major penalty (viii). (Incorrect)

Therefore, only points 1 and 3 are minor penalties.

45. Suppose you are the head of the security unit of an airport and an aer

Suppose you are the head of the security unit of an airport and an aeroplane has been hijacked there. While dealing with the hijackers, what precautions will be taken by you ?

1. Follow the instructions of the flight crew, as they are trained to deal with such contingencies
2. Do not provoke the hijackers in any circumstances
3. Convey to the hijackers that you are a Sky Marshal
4. Do not make eye contact with the hijackers

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1, 2 and 4 only

1, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

2 and 3 only

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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The correct answer is A.

Dealing with an aeroplane hijacking requires careful crisis management, prioritizing safety and avoiding provocation, while utilizing the expertise of those involved.

1. While ground forces typically take command, coordination with the flight crew is essential. Flight crew are trained in handling onboard emergencies and have crucial situational awareness of what is happening inside the aircraft. Following their instructions (interpreted as close coordination and valuing their input) is plausible, especially in initial stages or for specific onboard conditions.
2. Not provoking the hijackers is a fundamental principle in any hostage or hijacking situation. Actions should aim to de-escalate tension and minimize risk to those onboard. This is a correct precaution.
3. Conveying to the hijackers that you are a Sky Marshal from the ground is unlikely to be a standard procedure and could potentially complicate the situation or reveal security measures unnecessarily. Sky Marshals operate onboard.
4. Avoiding eye contact can be a tactic used in initial interactions or negotiations to avoid appearing confrontational or challenging, contributing to de-escalation. This is a plausible precaution.

Based on typical crisis management principles in hijacking scenarios, avoiding provocation (2 and 4) and coordinating with key personnel (1) are appropriate measures, while revealing identities like Sky Marshal (3) from the ground is not. Therefore, 1, 2, and 4 are the most likely correct precautions among the options.

46. Suppose you are working as the head of the CISF security unit of an in

Suppose you are working as the head of the CISF security unit of an industrial unit. You are supposed to act against the kidnapping of the Managing Director of the industrial unit. Which of the following will be done by you ?

1. Try to make contact with the kidnappers through informal sources
2. Convey message to the Managing Director that he should not resist at any cost
3. Do not try to be heroic, rather engage the kidnappers in negotiations
4. Always assume that you can reason out with kidnappers and win them over

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1, 2 and 4 only

1, 2 and 3 only

3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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The correct answer is B.

Handling a kidnapping requires a strategic approach focused on the safe recovery of the victim, often involving negotiation and intelligence gathering, while avoiding actions that could endanger the victim.

1. Trying to make contact through informal sources can be a valuable way to gather intelligence or initiate indirect communication channels with the kidnappers. This is a plausible step.
2. Advising the victim not to resist is standard protocol in kidnapping scenarios as resistance can provoke violence from the perpetrators, endangering the victim’s life. This is a plausible and important step.
3. Engaging in negotiations rather than immediately attempting a heroic intervention is often preferred to ensure the victim’s safety and explore possibilities for a peaceful resolution. This is a plausible strategy in crisis management.
4. Assuming you can *always* reason out with kidnappers and win them over is unrealistic and dangerous. Kidnappers’ motivations, mental state, and intentions can vary greatly, and they may not be amenable to reason or persuasion. This is a flawed assumption in crisis management.

Therefore, actions 1, 2, and 3 are generally considered appropriate approaches in handling a kidnapping situation, while action 4 is not.

47. Which organization carries out Security Audit of Airports internationa

Which organization carries out Security Audit of Airports internationally ?

BCAS

ICAO

ACI

IATA

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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The correct answer is B.

International standards and audits for civil aviation security are primarily governed by a specialized agency of the United Nations.

The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) is the UN specialized agency that codifies the principles and techniques of international air navigation and fosters the planning and development of international air transport to ensure safe and orderly growth. ICAO sets international standards and recommended practices for aviation security, contained in Annex 17 to the Chicago Convention. It also conducts the Universal Security Audit Programme (USAP) to monitor compliance of Member States with these standards and security-related provisions. BCAS is a national regulatory body in India. ACI and IATA are industry associations representing airports and airlines, respectively.

48. Which one of the following is not an essential ingredient of the offen

Which one of the following is not an essential ingredient of the offence of theft ?

Taking

Dishonest intention

Putting a person in fear of death or grievous hurt

Moveable property

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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The correct answer is C.

The offence of theft is defined under Section 378 of the Indian Penal Code. It lists several essential ingredients that must be present for the offence to be constituted.

The essential ingredients of theft under Section 378 IPC are:
1. Intention to take dishonestly.
2. Taking.
3. Moveable property.
4. Out of the possession of any person.
5. Without that person’s consent.

Option A (Taking), Option B (Dishonest intention), and Option D (Moveable property) are all essential ingredients of theft. Option C, “Putting a person in fear of death or grievous hurt,” is an essential ingredient of the offence of *robbery* (Section 390 IPC), not simple theft. Theft becomes robbery when, in committing theft, the offender voluntarily causes or attempts to cause to any person death or hurt or wrongful restraint, or fear of instant death or instant hurt or instant wrongful restraint.

49. ‘A’ being on friendly terms with ‘Z’ goes into ‘Z’s library in ‘Z’s ab

‘A’ being on friendly terms with ‘Z’ goes into ‘Z’s library in ‘Z’s absence and takes away a book without ‘Z’s express consent for the purpose of merely reading it and with the intention of returning it. ‘A’ was under the impression that he had ‘Z’s implied consent to use ‘Z’s book. ‘A’ shall be held guilty of which one of the following offences ?

Breach of trust

Theft

Misappropriation of property

No offence

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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The correct answer is D.

The scenario describes ‘A’ taking a book belonging to ‘Z’ without explicit consent but with the intention of returning it and under the belief of having implied consent. The crucial element for offences like theft, breach of trust, or misappropriation of property is ‘dishonest intention’.

The offence of theft under Section 378 of the IPC requires the intention to take property ‘dishonestly’. Dishonestly, as defined in Section 24, means intending to cause wrongful gain or wrongful loss. In this case, ‘A’ intends merely to read the book and return it, not to cause permanent deprivation or loss to ‘Z’, nor to gain wrongful possession. Believing in implied consent further negates the idea of a dishonest taking. Similarly, criminal breach of trust (Section 405) requires dishonest misappropriation or conversion, and misappropriation (Section 403) requires dishonest misappropriation or conversion for one’s own use. Since the intention is not dishonest, none of these criminal offences are committed. The act might constitute a civil wrong (like trespass to chattels), but it is not a criminal offence under the IPC definitions provided.

50. ‘A’ removes a landmark fixed by a public authority on a busy intersect

‘A’ removes a landmark fixed by a public authority on a busy intersection, and hides that behind a large tree, due to which it is no longer visible to the public for whom it was put on display. ‘A’ is guilty of an offence under which one among the following provisions ?

Section 432 IPC

Section 433 IPC

Section 434 IPC

Section 435 IPC

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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The correct answer is C.

The act described, removing or hiding a landmark fixed by a public authority, constitutes the offence of mischief related to public landmarks. This specific offence is covered by Section 434 of the Indian Penal Code.

Section 434 of the IPC is titled “Mischief by destroying or moving, etc., a land-mark fixed by public authority”. It states that whoever commits mischief by destroying or moving any land-mark fixed by the authority of a public servant, or by any other lawful authority, or by taking down, altering or defacing any such land-mark, shall be punished. The scenario perfectly matches the description in Section 434. Other sections deal with different types of mischief (e.g., causing inundation under Section 432, related to lighthouses/sea-marks under Section 433, or by fire/explosive substance under Section 435).