2023 Archives

31. Which new provision has been added to the Scheduled Castes and Schedul

Which new provision has been added to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 vide its 2018 amendment ?

Section 14A

Section 15

Section 15A

Section 18A

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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The correct answer is D) Section 18A.

The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Amendment Act, 2018 introduced several new provisions to the Act. Among the options provided, Section 18A was inserted by the 2018 amendment. Section 18A essentially nullified the requirement of a preliminary enquiry and approval before arresting an accused person under the Act, which had been introduced by the Supreme Court in a previous judgment.

Other new sections inserted by the 2018 amendment include Section 14A (Appeals) and Section 15A (Rights of victims, witnesses and informants). Section 15 existed in the original Act. While 14A and 15A are also new provisions from the 2018 amendment, Section 18A was the most debated and significant change in response to a Supreme Court ruling, making it a likely focus of such a question.

32. Who among the following can investigate an offence, committed under th

Who among the following can investigate an offence, committed under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 ?

A police officer not below the rank of SP

A police officer not below the rank of DSP

A police officer not below the rank of SHO

A police officer not below the rank of Inspector

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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As per the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, and the rules framed thereunder, the investigation of any offence committed under this Act shall be conducted by a police officer not below the rank of a Deputy Superintendent of Police (DSP).

– The Act mandates that the investigation must be conducted by a senior police officer to ensure fairness, sensitivity, and thoroughness, given the sensitive nature of the offences.
– The specified rank is DSP or equivalent, ensuring a certain level of experience and authority in the investigating officer.

Rule 7 of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Rules, 1995, explicitly states that an offence under the Act shall be investigated by a police officer not below the rank of a Deputy Superintendent of Police. The investigating officer is required to be appointed by the State Government or Director General of Police or Superintendent of Police after taking into account his past performance in investigation of such cases and his sense of involvement in the implementation of the objectives of the Act.

33. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? Supervisory offic

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

Supervisory officers of the CISF are governed by CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965
Leave rules of the Central Government are not fully applicable to the enrolled members of the CISF

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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Both statements are generally correct regarding the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) and other Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs).

– Statement 1 is correct: Supervisory officers (Inspectors and above) in CISF and other CAPFs are typically governed by the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965 for disciplinary matters, as they hold civil posts under the Union.
– Statement 2 is correct: While the leave rules for enrolled members (ranks below Inspector) of CAPFs like CISF are based on or draw from Central Government leave rules (like CCS (Leave) Rules), they have specific force rules that modify or supplement these general rules, taking into account the unique operational requirements and structure of the force. Thus, the Central Government rules are not *fully* or directly applicable without modifications or specific force rules.

CAPFs have a dual structure for personnel rules. Officers often fall under rules similar to other central government employees (CCS rules), while jawans and non-gazetted officers have force-specific rules derived from or supplementing general civil service rules, often contained in their respective force Acts and Rules.

34. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. Employees of a

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. Employees of an industrial undertaking can be granted monetary reward if they help to detect serious crime
2. Monetary reward is admissible to non-gazetted Government servants only

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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Monetary rewards are often granted by law enforcement agencies and the government to individuals, including employees of various undertakings, who provide valuable information or assistance leading to the detection and prevention of serious crimes. However, monetary rewards are not restricted solely to non-gazetted Government servants; they can be admissible to gazetted officers as well, although rules regarding amounts and eligibility may differ. Furthermore, civilians are also eligible for such rewards.

– Statement 1 is correct: Employees of industrial undertakings, like any citizen, can be rewarded for assisting in crime detection, especially regarding crimes affecting their premises or industry.
– Statement 2 is incorrect: Monetary rewards for detecting crime are not admissible *only* to non-gazetted government servants. They can be given to gazetted officers and civilians as well, based on various scheme rules.

Various government departments and police forces have schemes to reward individuals for their contribution to maintaining law and order and preventing/detecting crime. The eligibility and amount of reward depend on the specific scheme and the significance of the assistance provided.

35. Commendation Discs cannot be awarded by Director General on which on

Commendation Discs cannot be awarded by Director General on which one of the following grounds ?

Commendable work during natural calamities

Accident-free driving and good record for ten years

Clean and good record of service for fifteen years

Outstanding achievement in sports at international level

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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While commendable work during natural calamities, outstanding achievement in sports at international level, and a long, clean record of service are typically valid grounds for various service awards including commendation discs, accident-free driving for a specified period (like ten years) is less likely to be a direct criterion for a high-level award like a Director General’s Commendation Disc compared to extraordinary actions or achievements.

– Grounds like distinguished service during calamities, significant achievements (sports), or overall exemplary long service (15 years clean record) are commonly recognized through commendations or awards.
– Accident-free driving, while indicative of good discipline and adherence to rules, is often considered part of maintaining a good service record or might be recognized through specific driving-related incentives or awards at a lower level, rather than a top commendation disc unless the driving involved specific acts of gallantry or exceptional skill under duress.

The specific criteria for awarding commendation discs vary by organization. However, generally, higher-level commendations are reserved for acts of bravery, exceptional performance of duty beyond the call of duty, outstanding achievements, or consistently high standards over a very long period. Among the given options, accident-free driving, while positive, is the least likely to meet the threshold for a Director General’s commendation compared to the others.

36. Briefing by the convoy commander before moving off must be detailed an

Briefing by the convoy commander before moving off must be detailed and explicit. The briefing should include :

1. Distribution of weapons irrespective of training
2. Appointment and duties of vehicle commanders

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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A detailed briefing by the convoy commander before moving off is crucial for the security and smooth operation of the convoy. The briefing should cover roles, responsibilities, route details, communication procedures, and emergency response plans.

– Appointing vehicle commanders and detailing their duties (2) is a fundamental aspect of convoy organization and control, and thus a mandatory item in a briefing.
– Distributing weapons irrespective of training (1) is a highly unsafe and unprofessional practice. Weapons handling requires proper training. Distributing weapons without ensuring personnel are trained is a serious safety and operational hazard and would never be included in a proper briefing.

Convoy briefings aim to ensure all personnel are aware of the mission, their specific roles, potential threats, and procedures to follow in various scenarios. This enhances coordination, safety, and effectiveness. Personnel operating weapons must always be adequately trained and authorized.

37. The magnitude of an earthquake is measured by :

The magnitude of an earthquake is measured by :

Tiltmeter

Richter scale

Seismograph

Seismometer

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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The magnitude of an earthquake, which represents the energy released at the earthquake’s source, is measured using scales like the Richter scale or, more commonly today, the Moment Magnitude Scale.

– **Richter scale (B):** An early scale used to measure the magnitude of earthquakes based on the amplitude of the largest seismic wave recorded.
– **Seismograph (C) / Seismometer (D):** These are instruments used to detect and record the ground motion caused by seismic waves from an earthquake. The data recorded by a seismograph is used to calculate the magnitude and locate the earthquake, but the instrument itself measures motion, not magnitude directly.
– **Tiltmeter (A):** An instrument used to measure very small changes in the inclination of the ground surface, often used to monitor volcanic activity or ground deformation.

While the Richter scale is well-known, the Moment Magnitude Scale is now the preferred method for measuring earthquake magnitude globally, especially for larger earthquakes, as it provides a more accurate estimate of the total energy released. Both are scales used to quantify magnitude, distinct from the instruments used to record seismic waves.

38. Which of the following are the three ‘D’s in the Principles of Securit

Which of the following are the three ‘D’s in the Principles of Security ?

1. Denial
2. Detection
3. Deterrence
4. Destruction

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1, 2 and 4

2, 3 and 4

1, 2 and 3

1, 3 and 4

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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In the principles of security, particularly physical or information security, the three common ‘D’s are Denial, Detection, and Deterrence.

– **Denial:** Measures taken to prevent unauthorized access or actions (e.g., locks, firewalls).
– **Detection:** Measures to identify that an unauthorized action or event has occurred or is occurring (e.g., alarms, surveillance systems).
– **Deterrence:** Measures aimed at discouraging potential adversaries from attempting an unauthorized action (e.g., visible security presence, warnings).
– Destruction (4) is a consequence of an event or an active measure against a threat, not typically considered a core principle of security *design* or *planning* in the same category as Denial, Detection, and Deterrence, which focus on preventing, identifying, or discouraging security breaches.

These principles form a layered approach to security. Ideally, denial measures should prevent incidents. If denial fails, detection measures alert to the breach. Deterrence aims to prevent attempts in the first place by increasing the perceived risk or difficulty for an attacker.

39. In the basic emergency plan, which of the following steps must be incl

In the basic emergency plan, which of the following steps must be included in a shutdown procedure ?

Shutting off power to machines and fans
Opening windows (except in case of bomb threats)
Closing valves
Unplugging vents and pipes

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 and 3 only

3 only

3 and 4 only

1, 2 and 4

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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In a basic emergency shutdown procedure, critical steps involve isolating potential hazards. Shutting off power to machines and fans prevents electrical hazards and stops machinery that could worsen the situation (e.g., spreading fire). Closing valves is essential to contain potential leaks of hazardous substances or to control flow in critical systems.

– Shutting off power (1) and closing valves (3) are standard safety procedures in many emergency shutdowns to prevent escalation of the incident or injury.
– Opening windows (2) might be done in specific emergencies (like gas leaks) but is not a universal step in a *basic* shutdown, especially if security or containment is an issue (as noted in the option itself regarding bomb threats).
– Unplugging vents and pipes (4) is generally not part of a basic shutdown procedure and could potentially create new hazards or interfere with containment systems. Shutdown procedures focus on isolation and securing systems, not disconnecting them in a manner that might release contents or disrupt safety features.

Emergency shutdown procedures are designed to quickly bring equipment and processes to a safe state in response to an emergency such as fire, explosion, hazardous material release, or security threat. The specific steps vary depending on the type of facility and the nature of the emergency, but fundamental actions include cutting power and isolating substances/systems.

40. The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 provides for the constitution

The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 provides for the constitution of which of the following bodies ?

National Human Rights Commission
State Human Rights Commission
Human Rights Tribunal
Human Rights Court

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1, 2, 3 and 4

2 and 3 only

1, 3 and 4 only

1, 2 and 4

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 provides for the constitution of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) at the central level and empowers State Governments to constitute State Human Rights Commissions (SHRCs). It also provides for the specification of Human Rights Courts in each district.

– The Act explicitly provides for the National Human Rights Commission (Section 3) and State Human Rights Commissions (Section 21).
– The Act empowers the State Government, in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court, to specify for each district a Court of Session to be a Human Rights Court (Section 30).
– The Act does not specifically provide for the constitution of generic “Human Rights Tribunals” in the same manner as the Commissions or Courts.

Human Rights Courts are intended for the speedy trial of offences arising out of the violation of human rights. While the Act mentions these three types of bodies, the primary statutory bodies created are the NHRC and SHRCs, with Human Rights Courts being existing Courts of Session specified for a particular purpose under the Act.