21. Which one of the following statements with regard to TNT is not corr

Which one of the following statements with regard to TNT is not correct ?

TNT stands for trinitrotoluene
It is of creamy yellow colour
It is a solid organic nitrogen compound
It is considered to be a low intensity explosive substance
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023
The correct option is D, as the statement “It is considered to be a low intensity explosive substance” is not correct.
TNT (Trinitrotoluene) is a high explosive. High explosives detonate at high velocity, producing a supersonic shockwave, unlike low explosives which deflagrate (burn rapidly). TNT is one of the most widely used explosive materials for military, industrial, and mining purposes.
Statements A, B, and C are correct. A) TNT stands for trinitrotoluene. B) Pure TNT is indeed a creamy yellow solid. C) It is a solid organic nitrogen compound with the chemical formula C6H2(NO2)3CH3.

22. In cases triable by special judges under the Prevention of Corruption

In cases triable by special judges under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, what is ordinarily the prescribed time period during which the trial should be concluded ?

2 years in aggregate
3 years in aggregate
4 years in aggregate
5 years in aggregate
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023
The correct answer is A) 2 years in aggregate.
Section 4(4) of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, as amended, states that the trial of an offence punishable under this Act shall be concluded as expeditiously as possible and, ordinarily, within a period of two years from the date of filing of the case.
The provision emphasizes the need for speedy trial in corruption cases. While “ordinarily” implies it may take longer in exceptional circumstances, the prescribed target time for conclusion is two years. The section also provides for reasons to be recorded by the special judge if the trial is not concluded within this period.

23. Under the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002, any authority or o

Under the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002, any authority or officer, who without reasons recorded in writing, conducts vexatious search by exercising powers under the Act is liable for punishment of :

Imprisonment up to 3 years or fine up to ₹ 50,000 or both
Imprisonment up to 2 years or fine up to ₹ 50,000 or both
Imprisonment up to 1 year or fine up to ₹ 50,000 or both
Imprisonment up to 6 months or fine up to ₹ 10,000 or both
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023
The correct answer is B) Imprisonment up to 2 years or fine up to ₹ 50,000 or both.
Section 62 of the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) prescribes the punishment for vexatious search or arrest conducted by an authority or officer without having reason recorded in writing or knowing that there are no grounds for doing so.
According to Section 62 of PMLA, any authority or officer who maliciously or vexatiously conducts any search or arrest under the Act, knowing that there are no grounds for doing so, shall be punishable with imprisonment which may extend to two years, or with fine which may extend to fifty thousand rupees, or with both.

24. In 2015, the Supreme Court of India struck down Section 66A of the Inf

In 2015, the Supreme Court of India struck down Section 66A of the Information and Technology Act, 2000 as being unconstitutional and violative of Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India. In which case did the Supreme Court deliver this landmark judgment ?

Shamsher Singh Verma v. State of Haryana
Shankar v. State
Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
Suhas Katti v. State of Tamil Nadu
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023
The correct answer is C) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India.
The Supreme Court of India’s landmark judgment delivered in 2015 which struck down Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000, as unconstitutional for violating Article 19(1)(a) (freedom of speech and expression) was in the case of *Shreya Singhal v. Union of India*.
Section 66A criminalized the sending of offensive messages through communication service. The Supreme Court found that the section was vague, arbitrary, and had a chilling effect on freedom of speech, and therefore it was not a reasonable restriction under Article 19(2). This judgment was a significant development for online free speech in India.

25. What is a system of a secure key pair consisting of a private key for

What is a system of a secure key pair consisting of a private key for creating a digital signature and a public key to verify the digital signature, known as:

Asymmetric crypto system
Secure system
Symmetric crypto system
Digital signature certificate
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023
The correct answer is A) Asymmetric crypto system.
A system using a pair of mathematically related keys, one private and one public, where the private key is used for operations like creating a digital signature and the public key is used for verification, is known as an asymmetric crypto system. This is also commonly referred to as public-key cryptography.
In asymmetric cryptography, the public key can be freely distributed, while the private key must be kept secret by its owner. For digital signatures, the sender uses their private key to sign data. The recipient uses the sender’s public key to verify that the signature is valid and was created by the owner of the corresponding private key. Symmetric crypto systems use the same key for both encryption/decryption or signing/verification, which is not the case described here. A digital signature certificate is a digital document that uses asymmetric cryptography to link a public key to an identity, but it is not the crypto system itself.

26. In VIP security, counter surveillance is very important. Which of the

In VIP security, counter surveillance is very important. Which of the following is/are essential for counter surveillance?

  • 1. Try speeding up, and then slow down
  • 2. Walk into a building and stop abruptly
  • 3. Drop something to see if someone picks it up

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 only
1, 2 and 3
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023
The correct answer is B) 1, 2 and 3.
Counter-surveillance techniques aim to detect if someone is following or observing a VIP. All three listed actions are considered valid methods to potentially reveal surveillance.
1. Changing speed (speeding up and slowing down) forces a potential surveillant to adjust their pace, making their following behavior more obvious.
2. Entering a building and stopping abruptly allows the VIP (or security personnel) to observe who enters after them or reacts outside.
3. Dropping something can be a deliberate act to create a pause or cause a reaction from someone following closely, potentially revealing their presence or behavior.
These are examples of physical counter-surveillance tactics used to disrupt predictable patterns and force a surveillant to take actions that might expose them. Other techniques include making unexpected turns, using reflections, and being observant of recurring individuals or vehicles.

27. With regard to CCTV monitor, which one of the following statements is

With regard to CCTV monitor, which one of the following statements is *not* correct ?

Monitor should be placed in a curved configuration
The monitor screen should be tilted upward to avoid reflection of overhead lighting
If possible, stacking of monitors should be avoided
Screens should be placed in a sequence, providing logical continuity with relation to location of cameras
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023
The correct answer is B) The monitor screen should be tilted upward to avoid reflection of overhead lighting.
The statement that is *not* correct regarding CCTV monitor placement is tilting the screen upward to avoid reflection of overhead lighting. Tilting a screen upward would typically increase the angle at which light from overhead sources reflects into the operator’s eyes, worsening glare and reducing visibility. To avoid reflections from overhead lights, monitors should ideally be tilted slightly downwards or positioned to avoid direct light sources.
Correct practices for CCTV monitor placement often include arranging large arrays in a curve for better viewing angles (A), avoiding stacking to reduce neck strain and improve horizontal scanning (C), and arranging screens logically according to camera location to aid situational awareness (D). Reducing reflections is crucial for operator comfort and effectiveness, and tilting upwards achieves the opposite when lights are overhead.

28. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? In AK-47 Rifle, w

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

  • In AK-47 Rifle, we use 7.62 mm ammunition
  • INSAS Rifles use ammunition of 5.56 mm
  • INSAS Rifle is shorter than AK-47 Rifle
  • AK-47 Rifle is heavier than INSAS Rifle

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only
1 and 2 only
3 only
2 and 4 only
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023
The correct answer is B) 1 and 2 only.
Statement 1: The AK-47 rifle primarily uses 7.62x39mm ammunition. This statement is correct.
Statement 2: The INSAS (Indian Small Arms System) rifle uses 5.56x45mm NATO ammunition. This statement is correct.
Statement 3: The INSAS rifle (typically around 960mm) is generally longer than the standard fixed-stock AK-47 rifle (around 870mm). Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
Statement 4: The original milled-receiver AK-47 (~4.3 kg) is slightly heavier than the INSAS rifle (~4.15 kg with empty magazine). However, the more common stamped-receiver AKM (~3.1 kg) is significantly lighter than the INSAS. Without specifying the variant, the statement “AK-47 Rifle is heavier than INSAS Rifle” is not universally true and thus considered incorrect in this context, especially compared to common variants like the AKM. Given that statements 1 and 2 are definitively correct, and option B combines them, it implies that statements 3 and 4 are considered incorrect.
The INSAS rifle is the standard assault rifle of the Indian Army. The AK-47 and its variants are widely used globally. The difference in ammunition size (7.62mm vs 5.56mm) reflects different design philosophies regarding range, stopping power, and manageability.

29. In the context of Aviation Security, a matchbox comes under the catego

In the context of Aviation Security, a matchbox comes under the category of :

Explosive
Incendiary
Dangerous substance
Weapon
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023
The correct answer is B) Incendiary.
In aviation security, items are categorized based on the type of threat they pose. A matchbox contains matches, which are materials designed to ignite easily and rapidly burn. Such items are classified as incendiaries because they pose a fire risk.
Explosives are substances that detonate. Dangerous substances is a broad category that includes various hazardous materials, but incendiaries are a specific subcategory often listed separately or highlighted due to their specific fire hazard. While an incendiary device can potentially be used as a weapon, its primary classification based on its properties and the risk it poses (fire) places it under the incendiary category in aviation security regulations.

30. In X-BIS, what is meant by TIP ?

In X-BIS, what is meant by TIP ?

Threat Identification Procedure
Threat Image Projection
Tested and Identified Packet
Test Identification Parade
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023
The correct answer is B) Threat Image Projection.
X-BIS stands for X-ray Baggage Inspection System, commonly used in security checkpoints. TIP in the context of X-BIS refers to Threat Image Projection, which is a software feature designed to enhance the effectiveness of security screening operators.
TIP works by superimposing artificial images of prohibited or dangerous items (threats) onto the real X-ray images of bags being screened. This allows the system to test and train operators by seeing if they detect these simulated threats. It helps maintain operator vigilance and identify training needs.