2023

11. Program in execution is called a :

Program in execution is called a :

Process
Product
Code
Page
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A program in execution is defined as a process. A process is an instance of a program running. It includes the program code, its current activity, its memory space, and resources allocated to it by the operating system.
– A process is a dynamic entity representing a program in action.
– A program is a static set of instructions.
Operating systems manage processes, allocating system resources such as CPU time, memory, and I/O devices to them. Different processes can run concurrently, giving the illusion of parallel execution even on a single-processor system through techniques like time-sharing.

12. Which one of the following is not an authority appointed/constituted

Which one of the following is not an authority appointed/constituted under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 ?

Conciliation Officer
Board of Conciliation
Registrar
Works Committee
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The correct option is C. A ‘Registrar’ is not typically an authority appointed or constituted under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, provides for various authorities for the prevention and settlement of industrial disputes. These include Conciliation Officers (Section 4), Boards of Conciliation (Section 5), Courts of Inquiry (Section 6), Labour Courts (Section 7), Industrial Tribunals (Section 7A), National Industrial Tribunals (Section 7B), and Works Committees (Section 3). A Registrar, such as a Registrar of Trade Unions (under the Trade Unions Act, 1926) or a Registrar of Companies, has functions related to registration and regulation of bodies, but is not an authority constituted under the ID Act for the purpose of resolving industrial disputes.
Works Committees are constituted in industrial establishments employing 100 or more workmen and consist of representatives of employers and workmen, aiming at promoting good relations and resolving issues at the shop floor level. Conciliation Officers and Boards of Conciliation are involved in mediating and assisting parties in reaching a settlement. Labour Courts and Tribunals adjudicate disputes when conciliation fails.

13. A Tribunal under Employees’ Provident Funds Scheme may, at any time, w

A Tribunal under Employees’ Provident Funds Scheme may, at any time, with a view to rectifying any mistake apparent from the record, amend any order passed by it, within a period of :

three years from the date of its order
five years from the date of its order
two years from the date of its order
one year from the date of its order
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The correct option is C. A Tribunal under the EPF Act can amend an order to rectify a mistake apparent from the record within a period of two years from the date of its order.
Section 7L(2) of the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, specifically provides that the Tribunal may amend any order passed by it, with a view to rectifying any mistake apparent from the record, within two years from the date of the order.
This provision allows for correction of clerical or arithmetical errors or other mistakes that are obvious on the face of the record, without requiring a full review or appeal, thereby ensuring accuracy in the tribunal’s orders.

14. Under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act,

Under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, an employee who is the member of Pension Scheme is said to reach the age of superannuation when such employee attains the age of :

55 years
58 years
60 years
62 years
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The correct option is B, as an employee who is a member of the Employees’ Pension Scheme, 1995 (under the EPF Act) is considered to reach the age of superannuation at 58 years for pension purposes.
Under the Employees’ Pension Scheme, 1995, the normal superannuation age for eligibility for a regular monthly pension is 58 years. Employees can take early pension from age 50, but with a reduced benefit, provided they meet other eligibility criteria.
The Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, provides for Provident Fund, Pension Scheme, and Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme for employees in organized sectors. The Employees’ Pension Scheme (EPS), 1995, replaced the earlier Family Pension Scheme and introduced provisions for member pensions based on service and average salary.

15. After framing of the Pension Scheme under the Employees’ Provident Fun

After framing of the Pension Scheme under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, a pension fund shall be established as soon as possible. The establishment of the Pension Fund shall lead to cessation of which of the following ?

Employees' Pension Scheme
Employees' Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme
Family Pension Scheme
None of the above
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The correct option is C. Upon the establishment of the Employees’ Pension Fund under the 1995 Scheme, the existing Family Pension Scheme ceased to operate.
The Employees’ Pension Scheme, 1995, was introduced to replace the Employees’ Family Pension Scheme, 1971. All assets and liabilities of the Family Pension Fund were transferred to the new Pension Fund, and the Family Pension Scheme consequently ceased to exist.
The Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance (EDLI) Scheme is a separate scheme under the EPF Act, providing life insurance cover. It was not replaced by the Employees’ Pension Scheme. The Employees’ Provident Fund itself also continues to exist alongside the Pension Scheme.

16. In which one of the following cases did the Supreme Court give directi

In which one of the following cases did the Supreme Court give directions that statutory status should be conferred upon the Central Vigilance Commission ?

Vineet Narain & Others v. Union of India & Another
Common Cause (A Regd. Society) v. Union of India
Centre for PIL v. Union of India & Others
Pravin Kumar v. The State
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The correct option is A, which refers to the case of Vineet Narain & Others v. Union of India & Another.
In the landmark Vineet Narain case (1997), the Supreme Court of India issued significant guidelines regarding the functioning of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) and the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC). Concerned about the integrity and independence of investigative agencies in prosecuting corruption cases involving high-profile individuals, the Court directed that the CVC be given a statutory status to ensure its independence and effectiveness in supervising anti-corruption efforts.
Following the directions in the Vineet Narain judgment, the Central Vigilance Commission Act was enacted in 2003, conferring statutory status upon the CVC and defining its powers and functions. This was a crucial step towards strengthening institutional mechanisms against corruption in India.

17. If a VIP is staying in a hotel, you should check that : 1. emergency

If a VIP is staying in a hotel, you should check that :

  • 1. emergency exits are available.
  • 2. incoming calls are screened.
  • 3. valuables are deposited with the bodyguards.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
1 and 2 only
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The correct option is D, as statements 1 and 2 are correct procedures when a VIP is staying in a hotel.
Statement 1 is correct: Checking and ensuring the availability and accessibility of emergency exits is a fundamental security and safety protocol for any VIP, ensuring evacuation routes are known and clear in case of emergency. Statement 2 is correct: Screening incoming calls is a standard security measure to filter unwanted calls, identify potential threats, and manage communication for the VIP. Statement 3 is incorrect: While valuables need to be secured, it is not standard procedure for bodyguards to take possession of the VIP’s valuables. Valuables are typically the responsibility of the VIP or may be secured in a hotel safe or other designated secure location. Bodyguards are primarily focused on personal security.
VIP security protocols in a hotel involve a comprehensive assessment of the location, securing the access points, coordinating with hotel staff, planning emergency procedures, and managing the VIP’s immediate environment. Communication security and privacy are also key considerations.

18. ‘Road Block’ is done in terrorist affected areas. Which of the followi

‘Road Block’ is done in terrorist affected areas. Which of the following principles should be followed in it ?

  • 1. It should make it difficult for the terrorists to turn back
  • 2. Adequate troops should be kept in the open
  • 3. Manning of road block should be done as per traffic movement
  • 4. Proper communication be set up, audible to all nearby personnel

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 only
2 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3
1 and 3 only
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The correct option is A, as only statement 1 is a correct principle for a road block in terrorist affected areas among the options provided.
Statement 1 is correct: A key objective of a road block is to prevent the movement of suspects, including making it difficult for them to turn back and escape. Statement 2 is incorrect: Adequate troops should be concealed or in covered positions, not kept in the open, to protect them from hostile fire and maintain tactical surprise. Statement 3 is incorrect: While traffic management might be necessary, the primary manning of a road block in a terrorist area is determined by security requirements, threat assessment, and the need to effectively screen vehicles/personnel, not primarily by normal traffic movement patterns. Statement 4 is incorrect: Communication is vital, but it should be secure (e.g., via radio) and discreet, not audible to all nearby personnel, which could alert the terrorists to the presence and actions of the security forces.
Effective road blocks in high-risk areas require careful planning, force protection measures, clear communication protocols (often covert), and layered defence to ensure the safety of personnel while maximizing the chance of interdicting targets.

19. Which of the following statements with regard to fuses are correct ?

Which of the following statements with regard to fuses are correct ?

  • 1. Fuses are simple switches required to activate an explosive device
  • 2. The three main types of fuses are time delay, physical action, and environment
  • 3. Good example of time delay fuses are chemical pencils

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1, 2 and 3
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
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The correct option is A, as statements 1, 2, and 3 are all correct regarding fuses.
Statement 1 is correct: Fuses initiate explosive devices, acting as a switch to trigger the main charge. Statement 2 is correct: Fuses are broadly categorized by their activation mechanism, including time delay (activated after a set period), physical action (activated by pressure, pull, etc.), and environment (activated by changes in light, temperature, etc.). Statement 3 is correct: Chemical pencils are a type of improvised time-delay fuse where a chemical reaction eats through a restraining material over time, releasing a firing pin or activating mechanism.
Fuses are critical components in ordnance and improvised explosive devices (IEDs), determining when and how the device functions. Understanding different types of fuses is important for counter-terrorism and bomb disposal operations.

20. Which of the following groups of provisions of the Indian Penal Code,

Which of the following groups of provisions of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 form the basis for the present Prevention of Corruption Act ?

Section 58 to Section 62
Section 161 to Section 165A
Section 216B to Section 226
Section 478, 480, 490 and 492
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The correct option is B, which refers to Sections 161 to 165A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
Before the enactment of dedicated anti-corruption legislation, provisions related to bribery and corruption involving public servants were primarily contained in the Indian Penal Code, 1860. Sections 161 to 165A specifically dealt with offences such as a public servant taking gratification other than legal remuneration in respect of an official act, abetment of such offences, and other related matters concerning corrupt practices by public servants.
The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1947 was the first dedicated legislation dealing with corruption. It was later replaced by the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. The 1988 Act consolidated and amended the law relating to the prevention of corruption and repealed the 1947 Act and also amended certain provisions of the Indian Penal Code and the Criminal Law Amendment Ordinance, 1944. Many definitions and concepts from the original IPC sections (161-165A) were carried over or adapted into the subsequent anti-corruption laws, forming their foundational basis regarding offences by public servants.
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